Microbiology Exam 100 Questions & Answers 2023/2024 UpdateMicrobiology,Oral Physiology,Oral Diagnosis, Pathophysiology,Phamacology, Class Anesthesiology & General Physiology Exam Questions & Answers 2023/2024 Update
1. Any deviation from health where tissues and organs are damaged and disru...
Microbiology Exam 100 Questions & Answers 2023/2024 Update 1. Any deviation from health where tissues and organs are damaged and disrupted is termed as: A. Pathology B. Disease C. Infection D. Transient microbiota E. Commensalism 2. The human body provides a favorable habitat for microorganisms. Which of the following does not contribute to this favorable habitat? A. Stable temperature B. Extensive surfaces upon which to colonize C. Constant source of nourishment D. Low levels of moisture E. Relatively stable pH 3. The ultimate goal of metabolism in the microorganisms is to: A. Allow the organism to grow B. Allow the organism to reproduce C. Allow the organism to respond to the envi ronment D. Allow the organism to move about its environment 4. The chemical reactions that sustain life depend on which of the following to keep the microorganisms active? A. High concentration of reactants B. High temperatures C. Random collisions between reactants D. Org anic catalaysts called enzymes 5. A commensal bacterium: A. Does not receive any benefit from its host B. Is beneficial to its host C. May be an opportunistic pathogen D. Does not infect its host E. B and D only 6. Phenomenon in which flora inhibits growth of potential pathogens by competing for nutrients or oxygen, preventing attachment, production of antimicrobial substances. A. Microbial antagonism B. Microbial commensalism C. Microbial symbiosis D. Microbial commensalis m 7. Pathogenicity is the ability of the microbe: A. To cause infection in the susceptible host B. To modify the composition of the normal flora C. To cause disease in the human host D. To spread actively from host to another host 8. Etiology refers to the study of: A. Viral infection B. The cause of disease C. The portal of exit D. The results seen after a disease occurs E. None of the above 9. Among the bacterial virulence factors, which among the following can participate in the formation and development of periodontal disease: A. Flagella B. Sialic acid C. Endotoxin, adhesins and collagenase D. Bacterial hemolysin 10. A nosocomial infection is: A. Always present but is inapparent at the time of hospitalization B. Acquired during the course of hospitalization C. Always caused by medical personnel D. Only a result of surgery E. Always caused by pathogenic bacteria 11. Which does NOT contribute to the development of nosocomial infections? A. The presence of compromised patients in hospitals B. The presence of pathogens in hospitals C. The use of in -dwelling medical devices D. Treatments utilizing reusable instruments E. The use of effective infection control measures 12. The time between the initial infection and the onset of symptoms is called: A. Disease period B. Illness period C. Prodromal period D. Decline period E. Incubation period 13. During which stage of a clinical infection does the patient experience vague feelings of discomfort, such as head and muscle aches, fatigue, upset stomach and general malaise? A. Terminal phase B. Incubation period C. Convalescent period D. Prodromal stage E. Period of invas ion 14. The period during which major disease occurs is called: A. Period of illness B. Period of decline C. Prodromal period D. Period of convalescence E. Major period 15. Which of the following is NOT a reservoir of infection? A. A sick person B. A healthy person C. A sick animal D. A hospital E. All of the above can be reservoirs of infection 16. Symptoms of disease differ from signs of disease in the symptoms A. Are c hanges felt by the patient B. Are changes observed by the physician C. Are specific for a particular disease D. Always occur as part of a syndrome E. None of the above 17. The ID50 is a A. Measure of pathogenicity B. Dose that will cause an infection in 50% of the test population C. Dose that will kill some of the test population D. Dose that will cause an infection in some of the test population E. Dose that will kill 50% of the test population 18. Which of the following does NOT contribute to a pathoge n’s invasiveness? A. Toxins B. Capsule C. Cell wall D. Hyaluronidase E. Ligands 19. Which of the following statements is false? A. Leukocidins destroy neutrophils B. Hemolysins lyse red blood cells C. Hyaluronidase breaks down substances between cells D. Kinase destroy fibrin clots E. Coagulase destroys blood clots 20. Which of the following statements about exotoxins is generally false? A. They are more potent than endotoxins B. They are composed of proteins C. They are not de stroyed by heat D. They have specific methods of action E. They are produced by gram -positive bacteria 21. Endotoxins are A. Associated with gram -positive bacteria B. Specific in their method of action C. Part of the gram -negative cell wall D. Excreted from the cell E. A-B toxins 22. Which of the following is NOT a membrane -disrupting toxin? A. A-B toxin B. Hemolysin C. Leukocidin D. Streptolycin O E. Streptolysin S 23. Which of the following is NOT used by bacteria for attachment to a host? A. M protein B. Ligands C. Fimbriae D. Capsules E. A-B toxin 24. Which of the following does NOT contribute to the virulence of a pathogen? A. Number of microorganisms that gain access to a host B. Cell wall C. Toxins D. Enzymes E. All of the above contribute to a pathogen’s virulence 25. Lysogenic bacteriophages contribute to bacterial virulence because bacteriophages: A. Give new gene sequences to the host bact eria B. Produce toxins C. Carry plasmids D. Kill the bacteria causing release of endotoxins E. Kill human cells 26. Which is a method of avoiding phagocytosis? A. Producing fimbriae B. Inducing endocytosis C. Producing toxins D. Inducing Tumor Necrosis Factor (TN F) E. Producing iron -binding proteins 27. Viruses: A. Are in general 300 -500nm in size B. Contain either RNA or DNA as the genetic material C. Are termed naked if the envelope does not contain spikes D. Exhibit mainly icosahedral or a helical symmetry E. Are able to replicate on serum -containing media 28. Viruses may cause human diseases by: A. Direct invasion B. Immune mechanisms C. Production of toxins D. Immunosuppression E. Inducing malignant transformation 29. Viruses replicate by which of the following means? A. Binary fission B. Extracellularly C. Within a host cell D. Cell division 30. Which of the following reasons do viruses need to reproduce in a host cell? A. They have no DNA or RNA B. They have no cytoplasm C. They lack a nuclear membrane D. They possess multiple chromosomes surrounded by a nuclear membrane 31. The viral nucleic acid core is best protected by which of the following? A. Capsid B. Genome C. Peplomer D. Envelope 32. A virus is called a virion when, EXCEPT: A. It is infectious B. It is being replicated C. It is in extracellular phase 33. The intracellular stage of a viral infection is characterized by: 1. The absence of a demonstrable virion 2. An increase in number of viral particles 3. Attainment of eclipse phase 4. Nucleocapsid A. 1,2,3 B. 2,3,4 C. 1,3,4 D. 2,1,4 34. Susceptibility of prokaryotic or eukaryotic cells to virus infection involves: A. Reception for its envelope B. Random encounters on the virus 35. Early protein synthesis occurring during viral replication makes: A. Protomers & g lycoprotein spikes B. Enymes for viral replication C. Enzymes for capsid and envelope synthesis 36. In lysogeny: A. A bacteriophage transfers bacterial DNA B. Bacteria take up double stranded DNA from the environment C. DNA degrading enzymes in the extracellular medium would stop the process D. A bacteriophage genome is integrated into the bacterial genome 37. In transduction, bacteria acquire new genetic information in the form of: A. Bacterial genes B. Mutation C. “naked” DNA D. R-factors E. Viral ge nes 38. Which of the following is responsible for the pleomorphism of some viruses? A. Capsid B. Envelope C. Spikes 39. Which is not true of virus capsids? A. They surround and protect viral nucleic acid B. Always icosahedral in shape C. Remain outside of host bacterial cells while the nucleic acid is injected into the bacterial cell D. Enters host animal cell together with the nucleic acid E. Made up of protein subunits called capsomeres 40. Which of the following viruses is the prevalent cause of most oral infections? A. Adenoviruses B. Papillomaviruses C. Herpesviruses D. Poxviruses 41. Which of the following modes of transmission makes the hepadnaviruses significant in dentistry? A. Airborne/inhala tion B. Stool specimen C. Transfer from inanimate objects D. Saliva and blood
Voordelen van het kopen van samenvattingen bij Stuvia op een rij:
√ Verzekerd van kwaliteit door reviews
Stuvia-klanten hebben meer dan 700.000 samenvattingen beoordeeld. Zo weet je zeker dat je de beste documenten koopt!
Snel en makkelijk kopen
Je betaalt supersnel en eenmalig met iDeal, Bancontact of creditcard voor de samenvatting. Zonder lidmaatschap.
Focus op de essentie
Samenvattingen worden geschreven voor en door anderen. Daarom zijn de samenvattingen altijd betrouwbaar en actueel. Zo kom je snel tot de kern!
Veelgestelde vragen
Wat krijg ik als ik dit document koop?
Je krijgt een PDF, die direct beschikbaar is na je aankoop. Het gekochte document is altijd, overal en oneindig toegankelijk via je profiel.
Tevredenheidsgarantie: hoe werkt dat?
Onze tevredenheidsgarantie zorgt ervoor dat je altijd een studiedocument vindt dat goed bij je past. Je vult een formulier in en onze klantenservice regelt de rest.
Van wie koop ik deze samenvatting?
Stuvia is een marktplaats, je koop dit document dus niet van ons, maar van verkoper abram23. Stuvia faciliteert de betaling aan de verkoper.
Zit ik meteen vast aan een abonnement?
Nee, je koopt alleen deze samenvatting voor €18,50. Je zit daarna nergens aan vast.
