Emergency Medical Technician Chapter 17: Neurologic Emergencies
Emergency Medical Technician Chapter 18: Gastrointestinal Emergencies
Emergency Medical Technician Chapter 19: Endocrine and Hematologic Emergencies
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Voorbeeld van de inhoud
BLOCK
1
REVIEW
(CH.
1,
2,
3
,
4,
8,
38,
39,
40
,
41)
CH.
1:
EMS
SYSTEMS
45
Q’s
(#1-20:
JB
Quiz)
1.
According
to
the
National
EMS
Scope
of
Practice
Model,
an
EMT
should
be
able
to:
A.
Interpret
a
basic
(ECG)
rhythm
and
treat
accordingly
B.
Insert
a
peripheral
IV
line
and
infuse
fluids
C.
Administer
epinephrine
via
the
subcutaneous
route
D.
Assist
a
patient
with
certain
prescribed
medicines
2.
An
appropriate
demonstration
of
professionalism
when
your
patient
is
frightened,
demanding,
or
unpleasant
is
to:
A.
Ignore
the
patient’s
feelings
and
focus
on
his
or
her
medical
complaint
B.
Continue
to
be
non-judgemental,
compassionate,
and
respectful
C.
Demand
that
the
patient
remain
quiet
and
cooperative
during
transport
D.
Reassure
the
patient
that
everything
will
be
alright,
even
if
it
will
not
be
3.
An
EMS
provider
who
has
extensive
training
in
various
aspects
of
advanced
life
support
(ALS)
is
called
a(n):
A.
EMT
B.
Advanced
EMT
(AEMT)
C.
EMR
D.
Paramedic
4.
Cardiac
monitoring,
pharmacologic
interventions,
and
other
advanced
treatment
skills
are
functions
of
the:
A.
EMT
B.
EMR
C.
AEMT
D.
Paramedic
5.
Continuing
education
in
EMS
serves
to:
A.
Provide
an
ongoing
review
and
audit
of
the
EMS
system
B.
Confirm
research
and
statistical
findings
in
prehospital
care
C.
Maintain,
update,
and
expand
the
EMT’s
knowledge
and
skills
D.
Enforce
mandatory
attendance
at
agency-specific
training
6.
EMS
as
we
know
it
today
had
its
origins
in
1966
with
the
publication
of:
A.
The
Emergency
Medical
Services
Act
B.
Accidental
Death
and
Disability:
The
Neglected
Disease
of
Modern
Society
C.
Emergency
Care
and
Transportation
of
the
Sick
and
Injured
D.
The
Department
of
Transportation’s
White
Paper:
Death
and
Dying
7.
If
a
defibrillator
manufacturer
claims
that
its
device
terminates
ventricular
fibrillation
on
the
first
shock
95%
of
the
time,
you
should:
A.
Determine
which
device
the
American
Heart
Association
recommends
B.
Recognize
that
this
does
not
mean
the
device
will
save
more
lives
C.
Avoid
purchasing
the
device
because
this
claim
is
unrealistic
D.
Purchase
the
device
based
solely
on
the
manufacturer’s
claim
8.
Obtaining
continuing
medical
education
is
the
responsibility
of
the:
A.
EMS
medical
director
B.
EMS
training
officer
C.
Individual
EMT
D.
State
Bureau
of
EMS 9.
The
continuous
quality
improvement
(CQI)
process
is
designed
to:
A.
Identify
areas
of
improvement
and
provide
remedial
training
if
needed
B.
Focus
specifically
on
the
quality
of
emergency
care
provided
to
the
patient
C.
Ensure
that
all
EMTs
maintain
licensure
through
the
state
EMS
office
D.
Administer
punitive
actions
to
EMTs
who
do
not
follow
local
protocols
10.
The
determination
that
prompt
surgical
care
in
the
hospital
is
more
important
than
performing
life-consuming
procedures
in
field
on
a
major
trauma
patient
is
based
mostly
on:
A.
Regional
trauma
guidelines
B.
The
lead
EMT’s
decision
C.
EMS
research
D.
Local
protocols
11.
The
EMT
certification
exam
is
designed
to:
A.
Rank
EMTs
based
on
performance
on
the
certification
exam
B.
Ensure
that
EMTs
are
competent
and
have
the
same
level
of
knowledge
and
skills
C.
Identify
those
EMTs
who
are
prepared
for
advanced
levels
of
training
D.
Provide
EMTs
with
the
best
possible
wage
once
certification
is
achieved
12.
The
standard
for
prehospital
emergency
care
and
the
individuals
who
provide
it
are
typically
regulated
by
the:
A.
National
Registry
of
EMTs
B.
Regional
trauma
center
C.
American
Heart
Association
D.
State
office
of
EMS
13.
Which
of
the
following
criteria
is
required
to
become
licensed
and
employed
as
an
EMT?
A.
Demonstration
of
the
ability
to
lift
and
carry
at
least
200
pounds
B.
Successful
completion
of
a
recognized
bystander
CPR
course
C.
A
minimum
of
60
college
credit
hours
that
focus
on
health
care
D.
Proof
of
immunization
against
certain
communicable
diseases
14.
Which
of
the
following
descriptions
most
accurately
portrays
emergency
medical
services
(EMS)?
A.
A
team
of
health
care
professionals
who
are
responsible
for
providing
emergency
care
and
transportation
to
the
sick
and
injured
B.
A
vast
network
of
advanced
life
support
(ALS)
providers
who
provide
definitive
emergency
care
in
the
prehospital
setting
C.
A
system
composed
exclusively
of
emergency
medical
responders
(EMRs)
and
emergency
medical
technicians
(EMTs)
who
are
responsible
for
providing
care
to
sick
and
injured
patients
D.
A
team
of
paramedics
and
emergency
physicians
who
are
responsible
for
providing
emergency
care
to
critically
injured
patients
15.
Which
of
the
following
errors
is
an
example
of
a
knowledge-based
failure?
A.
An
EMT
gives
the
correct
drug
to
a
patient,
although
his
protocols
clearly
state
that
he
is
not
authorized
to
do
so
B.
Due
to
an
improperly
applied
cervical
collar,
a
patient’s
spinal
injury
is
aggravated
and
he
is
permanently
disabled
C.
An
EMT
administers
the
wrong
drug
to
a
patient
because
she
did
not
know
the
pertinent
information
about
the
drug
D.
A
patient
is
given
nitroglycerin
by
an
EMT
who
did
not
obtain
popper
authorization
from
medical
control
first 16.
Which
of
the
following
is
an
example
of
a
primary
prevention
strategy?
A.
The
construction
of
a
guardrail
on
a
dangerous
curve
following
a
fatal
motor
vehicle
crash
B.
Teaching
a
group
of
new
parents
how
to
perform
one-and
two-rescuer
infant
CPR
C.
Community
awareness
programs
that
emphasize
the
dangers
of
drinking
and
driving
D.
Protecting
a
patient’s
spine
from
further
injury
after
a
fall
from
a
significant
height
17.
Which
of
the
following
scenarios
involves
the
administration
of
ALS?
A.
A
53-year-old
patient
who
is
assigned
with
his
prescribed
nitroglycerin
B.
A
48-year-old
patient
whose
airway
is
secured
with
a
supraglottic
device
C.
A
61-year-old
patient
who
is
receiving
humidified
supplemental
oxygen
D.
A
64-year-old
patient
who
is
given
aspirin
for
suspected
cardiac
chest
pain
18.
Which
of
the
following
skills
of
interventions
is
included
at
every
level
of
prehospital
emergency
training?
A.
Automated
external
defibrillation
B.
Oral
glucose
for
hypoglycemia
C.
Use
of
a
manually
triggered
ventilator
D.
Intranasal
medication
administration
19.
Which
of
the
following
statements
regarding
the
NREMT
is
correct?
A.
The
NREMT
is
a
governmental
agency
that
certifies
EMTs
B.
The
NREMT
provides
a
national
standard
for
EMS
testing
C.
The
NREMT
regulates
EMS
training
standards
D.
The
NREMT
is
the
exclusive
certifying
body
for
EMTs
20.
Which
type
of
medical
direction
do
standing
orders
and
protocols
describe?
A.
Direct
B.
Off-line
C.
Online
D.
Radio
(#21-30:
Review
Q’s)
21.
Which
of
the
following
is
an
example
of
care
that
is
provided
using
standing
orders?
A.
Medical
control
is
contacted
by
the
EMT
after
a
patient
with
chest
pain
refuses
EMS
care
B.
The
EMT
defibrillates
a
cardiac
arrest
patient,
begins
CPR,
and
then
contacts
medical
control
C.
A
physician
gives
the
EMT
an
order
via
radio
to
administer
oral
glucose
to
a
diabetic
patient
D.
Following
an
overdose,
the
EMT
contacts
the
medical
director
for
permission
to
give
activated
charcoal
22.
Quality
control
in
an
EMS
system
is
the
ultimate
responsibility
of
the:
A.
Paramedic
B.
Lead
EMT
C.
Medical
director
D.
EMS
administrator
23.
Upon
arriving
at
the
scene
of
a
domestic
dispute,
you
hear
yelling
and
the
sound
of
breaking
glass
from
inside
the
residence.
You
should:
A.
Immediately
gain
access
to
the
patient
B.
Carefully
enter
the
house
and
then
call
the
police
C.
Retreat
to
a
safe
place
until
the
police
arrive
D.
Tell
the
patient
to
exit
the
residence
so
you
can
provide
care
24.
Which
of
the
following
is
NOT
a
component
of
continuous
quality
improvement
(CQI)?
A.
Periodic
review
of
run
reports
B.
Discussion
of
needs
for
improvement
C.
Negative
feedback
to
those
who
make
mistakes
while
on
a
call
D.
Remedial
training
as
deemed
necessary
by
the
medical
director 25.
All
of
the
following
are
responsibilities
of
the
EMS
medical
director,
EXCEPT:
A.
Evaluating
patient
insurance
information
B.
Serving
as
liaison
with
the
medical
community
C.
Ensuring
that
the
appropriate
standards
are
met
by
EMTs
D.
Ensuring
appropriate
EMT
education
and
continuing
training
26.
Which
of
the
following
situations
would
MOST
likely
disqualify
a
person
for
EMS
certification?
A.
A
misdemeanor
at
the
age
of
17
B.
Driving
under
the
influence
of
alcohol
C.
Possessing
a
valid
driver’s
license
from
another
state
D.
A
mild
hearing
impairment
that
is
corrected
with
hearing
aids
27.
Which
of
the
following
should
be
the
EMT’s
highest
priority?
A.
Controlling
severe
bleeding
B.
Maintaining
a
patient’s
safety
C.
Ensuring
patient
safety
D.
Ensuring
personal
safety
28.
A
patient
who
requires
cardiac
monitoring
in
the
field
would
require,
at
a
minimum,
which
level
of
EMS
provider?
A.
EMR
B.
EMT
C.
Paramedic
D.
AEMT
29.
Which
of
the
following
is
a
professional
responsibility
of
the
EMT?
A.
Telling
the
family
of
a
dying
patient
that
everything
will
be
OK
B.
Maintaining
only
the
skills
that
the
EMT
feels
uncomfortable
with
C.
Maintaining
a
professional
demeanor
even
under
the
most
stressful
situations
D.
Advising
an
emergency
department
nurse
that
patient
reports
are
given
only
to
a
physician
30.
Emergency
patient
care
occurs
in
progressive
phases.
What
occurs
first?
A.
Activation
of
EMS
B.
Initial
prehospital
care
C.
The
patient
receives
definitive
care
D.
Incident
recognition
(#31-35:
Extra
Review)
31.
Which
of
the
following
is
true
of
medical
control?
A.
It
is
determined
by
the
dispatcher
B.
It
may
consist
of
written
or
“standing”
orders
C.
It
requires
online
radio
or
phone
communications
D.
It
affects
only
ALS
providers
32.
What
is
the
major
goal
of
continuous
quality
improvement?
A.
To
perform
quarterly
audits
of
the
EMS
system
B.
To
verify
that
EMTs
have
received
BLS/CPR
training
C.
To
ensure
that
the
public
receives
the
highest
standard
of
care
D.
To
verify
that
the
proper
information
is
received
in
the
billing
department
33.
Which
of
the
following
involves
federal
legislation
concerning
patient
confidentiality?
A.
NAACS
B.
HIPAA
C.
EMTALA
D.
FLCPC
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