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Patho Midterm Chamberlain nr507 Questions and Answers 2024
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Patho Midterm Chamberlain nr507Housekeeping genes are vital to the function and maintenance of all the body's cells.
What characteristic is associated with these genes? - answerD. They are
transcriptionally active.
Mutations in the encoding of histones modifying proteins have been shown to influence
the development of what congenial condition - answerHeart disease
Signals to change or modify epigenetic tags are ... from where? - answerSignals come
from inside the cell, from neighboring cells or the environment
During which stage of human development does the role of epigenetics have the
greatest impact on the development of epigenetic abnormalities - answerA. In utero
The difference between DNA sequence mutations and epigenetic modifications is? -
answerEpigenetic modifications are REVERSIBLE
Explain the characteristics of totipotent stem cells and the sources of it -
answerTotipotent cells are cells that can mature into any type of body cell in an
organism including the cells that make up the placenta in mammals. Totipotent cells are
only present in mammals in the first few cell divisions of an embryo.
Give 2 examples of totipotent cells - answerA zygote
Cells in the early embyro up to 5 days
What is a Totipotent cell? - answerTotipotent cells are cells that can differentiate into
any type of body cell and extra embryonic tissue
What are the characteristics of Prader-Willi syndrome? - answer1. Chronic feeling of
hunger (severe, even life-threatening obesity)
2. Low muscle tone
3. Short
4. Poor sex characteristic development
5. Behavioral problems
6. Poor cognitive development
Angelman syndrome is sometimes called "happy puppet syndrome." What are the signs
of this disorder? - answer1. Severe mental retardation
2. No speech
3. Abnormal gait
4. Wide stance
,5. Arms held out kinda weird
What is the most common genetic cause of Prader-Willi syndrome? - answerA deletion
of a segment of PATERNAL chromosome 15q. The maternal counterpart is methylated
via genomic imprinting.
What is the most common genetic cause of Angelman syndrome? - answerA deletion of
a segment of MATERNAL chromosome 15q. The paternal counterpart is methylated via
genomic imprinting.
A child with Prader-Willi syndrome has been hospitalized. Which assessment findings
does the nurse expect with this syndrome? - answerPrader-Willi syndrome is
characterized by insatiable hunger that can lead to morbid obesity in childhood.
Abnormal, puppetlike gait, paroxysms of inappropriate laughter, and nonverbal are
characteristics seen in Angelman syndrome.
The nurse is examining an 8-year-old boy with chromosomal abnormalities. Which sign
or symptom suggests the boy has Angelman syndrome? - answerObservation shows
jerky ataxic movement
Angelman syndrome is characterized by jerky ataxic movements, similar to a puppet's
gait. Hypotonicity is a symptom of Angelman syndrome as well as Prader Willi
syndrome, and Cri-du-chat. Cleft palate is a symptom of velo-cardio-facial/DiGeorge
syndrome
What is the role of inactive MLH1 in the development of some forms of inherited colon
cancer? - answerDNA Damage is left unrepaired
When considering abnormal epigenetic modifications, what factor is currently being
viewed as strongly associated with the development of some cancers? -
answerEnvironmental Stressors
42. The most common cause of pathologic hyperbilirubinemia is: - answerHemolytic
disorders in the newborn are the most common cause of pathologic jaundice.
Which infant is most likely to express Rh incompatibility? - answerInfant of an Rh-
negative mother and a father who is Rh positive and homozygous for the Rh factor
Rh-positive offspring of an Rh-negative mother are at risk for Rh incompatibility
Rh hemolytic disease is suspected in a mother's second baby, a son. Which factor is
important in understanding how this could develop? - answerThe first child was Rh
positive
The nurse is caring for an infant with hemolytic disease. Which medication should the
nurse anticipate to be prescribed to decrease the bilirubin level? - answerPhenobarbital
, Which of the following combinations may result in the hemolytic disease of the
newborn? - answermother Rh negative, baby Rh positive
The nurse is caring for a newborn with hemolytic disease of the newborn who is
receiving phototherapy. Which of the following nursing interventions would be most
appropriate for the nurse to do? - answerThe nurse turns the newborn every 3 or 4
hours
A patient diagnosed with acute primary HIV infection is in the clinic. What treatment
should be initiated for this patient? - answerCombination antiretroviral therapy
Didanosine therapy once daily
Zidovudine therapy once daily
Monotherapy protease inhibitor therapy
A patient has human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). A nurse realizes the HIV will attack:
- answerC) helper T cells.
The nursing instructor is discussing the development of human immunodeficiency
disease (HIV) with the students. What should the instructor inform the class about
helper T cells? - answerFighting infection *
A patient has DiGeorge syndrome. Which assessment findings should the nurse
monitor for in this patient? - answerLow calcium levels and tetany
A nurse is caring for a client who is deficient in T cells. Which result of this T cell
deficiency does the nurse anticipate? - answerB) Decrease in leukocytes
C) Impaired cellular immunity
T cells are subtypes of leukocytes, and they are a key factor in cellular immunity;
therefore the client may experience impaired cellular immunity and a decrease in
leukocytes.
What is the purpose of pulmonary function testing - answerTo identify and measure
pulmonary disease.
What is the role of pulmonary function testing? - answerIt serves both a diagnostic and
therapeutic role.
It determines how well the lungs work.
What does PFT screening do? - answerIt may detect pulmonary abnormalities caused
by disease or environmental factors in general populations, occupational settings,
smokers, or other high risk goups
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