Obesity exam - Study guides, Class notes & Summaries

Rasmussen College MDC 3 FINAL Exam | 100% Correct Answers | Latest 2024 Version 1. The nurse is arriving at the beginning of her shift and has taken report on four clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which client should the nurse see first? A. A client with hypertension with a blood pressure of 172/92 mm Hg. B. A client with pain that is two days postoperative from a prostatectomy. C. A client ready for discharge education after treatment of an acute kidney injury. D. A client with a histo...

Detailed Answer Key For Medical Surgical Exam, A+ Solutions 1. A nurse is reviewing the cause of gout with a group of nurses. Which of the following statements should the nurse make? A. "Uric acid levels drop and calcium forms precipitate." Rationale: With gout, clients have hyperuricemia, rather than a reduction in uric acid. B. "Tophi form in the kidneys and they impair the excretion of uric acid." Rationale: Tophi, or deposits in tissues near a joint, develop in chronic, late-stage gout....

Exam 3: NSG500 / NSG 500 (Latest 2024 / 2025) Advanced Health Assessment Review | Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Correct | Grade A - Wilkes Q: What is the best way to assess for joint effusion? Answer: Palpate; it will be feel soft an spongy (that's the fluid in the joint you are feeling) Q: Osteoarthritis; What is the tinel test? Answer: -tapping on ulnar side and indicates if medial nerve is involved Q: What is the phalen test? Answer: An exam that assess for carpal tunnel syndrome. -I...

Midterm Exam: NSG120/ NSG 120 (Latest 2024/ 2025 Update) Pathophysiology Complete Guide with Questions and Verified Answers| All Units Covered| 100% Correct| Grade A – Herzing Q: autoimmune disorder a condition in which the immune system produces antibodies against the body's own tissues, no cure but rather focus on treating symptoms Q: immunodeficiency disorder Answer: a condition that occurs when one or more parts of the immune system are deficient or missing Q: act...

Exam 2: NSG500 / NSG 500 (Latest 2024 / 2025) Advanced Health Assessment Review | Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Correct | Grade A - Wilkes Q: Symptoms of tympanic membrane rupture Answer: Bloody/yellow discharge from ear, pain, hearing loss, tinnitus Q: Laryngeal obstruction Answer: Stridor Q: How to examine the ear in children vs. adults, and considerations in geriatrics Answer: Children/infant: Below 3 years old, down and back Adults: 3+ older, UP and back. Q: Risk factors for cataract...

NR601 Midterm Exam 2 6mo ago an elderly pt was dx'd w/subclinical hypothyroidism. Today the pt returns and has TSH of 11 and c/o fatigue. He has taken Synthroid 25mcg daily as prescribed. What is the best course of action? - Double the dose 43yo hispanic male has audible diastolic murmur best heard at the mitral point. No audible click. He has been monitored for 2yrs. What is the most likely murmur? a. Mitral valve prolapse b. Acute mitral regurgitation c. Chronic mitral regurg...

Final Exam: NR 577 (NR577) Primary Care Management of Adolescents and Adults Final Exam Review| Guide with Verified Answers| Latest 2023/ 2024| Chamberlain QUESTION Onychomycosis Answer: nails are only area involved QUESTION Eczema Answer: itchy ozzy crusted lesion. The itch before the rash QUESTION Lichen planus Answer: thick non-scaly lesions limited to wrists limbs and oral mucosa QUESTION Risks of obesity Answer: HTN, Dyslipidemia, DM...

APEA 3P Actual Exam Test Bank Stuvia Is Available For Download After Purchase. In Case You Encounter Any Difficulties With The Download, Please Feel Free To Reach Out To Me. I Will Promptly Send It To You Through Google Doc or Email. Thank You. When performing a visual acuity test the nurse practitioner notes 20/30 in the left eye and 20/40 in the right eye using the Snellen eye chart. This means: a) have the patient returning in two weeks for a follow up vision screen b) dilated the eye an...

Exam 2: NSG550 / NSG 550 (Latest 2024 / 2025 Update) Diagnostic Reasoning for Nurse Practitioners Review | Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Correct | Grade A - Wilkes Q: A comprehensive test used to diagnose sleep disorders that records your brain waves, the oxygen level in your blood, heart rate, and breathing, as well as eye and leg movements during the study. Answer: Polysomnography Q: Indications for polysomnography Answer: -Sleep apnea -Periodic limb movement disorder sometimes associa...

CMN568 / CMN 568 (Latest 2024 / 2025) Intro to Family NP Unit 3 Exam Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Correct | Grade A – South Alabama Question: What is the strongest identifiable predisposing factor for the development of asthma? What is becoming increasingly recognizable as a significant risk factor? Answer: atopy (tendency to be hyperallergic); obesity Question: What medications can induce an asthma attack? Answer: beta blockers, NSAIDS, ASA, Histamine, methacholine,...

Exam 2: NUR2063 / NUR 2063 (Latest 2024 / 2025 Update) Essentials of Pathophysiology | Review Guide Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Correct | Grade A - Rasmussen Question: What does PCOS increase the risk of? Answer: Obesity, diabetes, mellitus, cardiovascular disease, and cancer. Question: What is the malformation of the esophagus called? Answer: Esophageal atresia Question: What is it called when the muscles in the lower esophagus fail to relax, not allowing f...