CADC Exam Practice Questions With Complete Solutions 2023/2024 | VERIFIED

What does the experienced effect of a drug depend upon? a. The amount taken and past drug experiences b. The modality of administration c. Polydrug use, setting, and circumstance d. All of the above d. All of the above 3. How is drug tolerance BEST described? a. The inability to get intoxicated b. The need for less of a drug to get intoxicated c. Increased sensitivity to a drug over time d. Decreased sensitivity to a drug over time d. Decreased sensitivity to a drug over time 4. Which of the following is NOT a "drug cue"? a. A prior drug-use setting b. Drug use paraphernalia c. Seeing others use drugs d. Drug avoidance strategies d. Drug avoidance strategies 5. What happens as tolerance for barbiturates develops? a. The margin between intoxication and lethality increases b. The margin between intoxication and lethality decreases c. The margin between intoxication and lethality stays the same d. Tolerance does not develop for barbiturates c. The margin between intoxication and lethality stays the same 6. What is the MOST common symptom of Wernicke's encephalopathy? a. New memory formation b. Loss of older memories c. Psychosis d. Confusion d. Confusion 7. Which of the following conditions does alcohol NOT induce? a. Steatosis b. Nephrosis c. Hepatitis d. Cirrhosis b. Nephrosis 8. What does formication refer to? a. The creation of freebase cocaine b. Sex between two unmarried individuals c. A sensation of bugs crawling under the skin d. Extrapyramidal symptoms of agitation c. A sensation of bugs crawling under the skin 9. What is/are the organ(s) most damaged by cocaine abuse? a. The brain b. The lungs c. The kidneys d. The heart d. The heart 10. Which of the following is NOT a basic chemical class of amphetamines? a. Amphetamine sulphate b. Phenethylamine c. Dextroamphetamine d. Methamphetamine b. Phenethylamine 11. In terms of difficulty quitting (dependence), which of the following four drugs ranks the highest? a. Alcohol b. Cocaine c. Heroin d. Nicotine d. Nicotine 12. Which of the statements below is MOST correct? a. THC content in all marijuana is about the same. b. THC content in hashish is lower than in a joint. c. THC content in marijuana is predictable. d. THC content in marijuana varies widely. d. THC content in marijuana varies widely. 13. Regarding substance abuse, what does Convergence Theory propose? a. Rates of substance abuse among women are converging with those of men. b. All individuals eventually narrow drug use to a drug of choice preference. c. Age is a key factor in eventual substance abuse abstinence. d. As individuals age, gender disparities in rates of abuse tend to converge. a. Rates of substance abuse among women are converging with those of men. 14. Among psychiatric disorders in the elderly, where does alcohol abuse rank? a. twenty-fifth b. fifteenth c. fifth d. third d. third 15. Which of the following subcategories of alcohol use disorder onset is NOT found in the elderly? a. Late-onset alcoholism b. Delayed-onset alcoholism c. Late-onset exacerbation drinking d. Early-onset alcoholism d. Early-onset alcoholism 16. At an initial meeting with a new client, what is the FIRST requirement? a. Establish rapport. b. Evaluate readiness for change. c. Review rules and expectations. d. Discuss confidentiality regulations. a. Establish rapport. 17. What does motivational interviewing primarily involve? a. Focused confrontation b. Behavioral accountability c. Reality testing d. Supportive persuasion d. Supportive persuasion 18. What percentage of individuals with a dual diagnosis (co-occurring disorders [COD]—i.e., substance abuse disorder and an existing mental illness) received treatment for only their mental illness? a. 32.9 percent b. 27.6 percent c. 12.4 percent d. 8.8 percent a. 32.9 percent 19. What factors can affect screening instrument validity? a. The screening setting and privacy b. The levels of rapport and trust c. How instructions are given and clarified d. All of the above d. All of the above 20. Which of the following functions is NOT what a Certified Alcohol and Drug Abuse Counselor can usually perform? a. Client screening b. Substance abuse assessment c. Diagnose mental disorders d. Formulate a treatment plan c. Diagnose mental disorders 21. What does the acronym GATE stand for? a. Gather information; Access supervision; Take responsible action; Extend the action b. Gather resources; Access procedures; Take clinical notes; Extend the intervention c. Gather documentation; Access contacts; Take counsel; Extend positive outcomes d. Gather the team; Access records; Take consultation; Extend documentation a. Gather information; Access supervision; Take responsible action; Extend the action 22. To which of the following do assessment processes and instruments NOT need be sensitive? a. Political orientation b. Age and gender c. Race and ethnicity d. Disabilities a. Political orientation 23. What are serious mental health symptoms that resolve with abstinence in thirty days or less MOST likely due to? a. A resolution of transient situational stressors at home, school, or work b. A serious underlying mental disorder that temporarily improved c. Substance abuse-induced disorders that require continued abstinence d. Malingering to manipulate circumstances for underlying goals c. Substance abuseinduced disorders that require continued abstinence 24. Which one of the following alcohol abuse screening tests is designed specifically for use with adolescents? a. CAGE b. CRAFFT c. MAST d. AUDIT b. CRAFFT 25. Which of the following is the MOST important introductory statement or question to ask in a suicidality evaluation? a. Have you ever tried to take your own life? b. Do you have thoughts about killing yourself? c. I need to ask you a few questions about suicide. d. Have you ever attempted suicide? c. I need to ask you a few questions about suicide. 26. What is the purpose of screening? a. To prepare the client for program admission b. To determine client readiness for change c. To establish client diagnoses and treatment needs d. To determine the need for placement or referral d. To determine the need for placement or referral 27. What is the primary purpose of substance abuse assessment? a. To determine the current level of health deterioration b. To identify a substance abuser's drug of choice c. To provide co-occurring disorder(s) diagnosis d. To determine the severity of the substance problem d. To determine the severity of the substance problem 28. Who should create a treatment plan? a. A multidisciplinary team of professionals b. Collaborative team with the client c. The primary treatment provider d. A professional boilerplate to ensure completeness b. Collaborative team with the client 29. How must assessment information be handled to be the MOST effective? a. Carefully documented b. Converted into goals and objectives c. Available to all treatment providers d. Summarized with the client for feedback b. Converted into goals and objectives 30. Which of these key elements does NOT bolster a client's desire to complete the program? a. Knowledge of the benefits of treatment b. Understanding of the treatment process c. Fully assuming the patient role d. Frequent interdisciplinary consultations d. Frequent interdisciplinary consultations 31. How many levels of treatment placement are recognized by the American Society of Addiction Medicine (ASAM)? a. Two levels of treatment placement b. Four levels of treatment placement c. Six levels of treatment placement d. Eight levels of treatment placement b. Four levels of treatment placement 32. How many Assessment Dimensions are recognized by the American Society of Addiction Medicine (ASAM)? a. Two assessment dimensions b. Four assessment dimensions c. Six assessment dimensions d. Eight assessment dimensions c. Six assessment dimensions 33. The term "drug use trajectory" refers to: a. Individual drug use patterns over the lifespan b. The rate at which a given drug enters the body c. Drug metabolism over time d. Behavioral patterns of intoxication a. Individual drug use patterns over the lifespan 34. Circumstances, Motivation, Readiness, and Suitability (CMRS) Scales are used for what purpose? a. Assessing client readiness for treatment b. Assessing various financial and family support domains c. Assessing client suitability for research participation d. Assessing clients for treatment level of care a. Assessing client readiness for treatment 35. When is a client fully prepared to enter treatment? a. Treatment is court ordered. b. Family pressures a client to enter treatment. c. Job-based drug testing creates a clear need. d. A client accepts the need for treatment. d. A client accepts the need for treatment. 36. Guiding principles in treatment planning are identified by which acronym? a. MTSRA b. MATRS c. MSRTA d. MRAST b. MATRS 37. In cases involving the criminal justice system, what is the minimum recommendation for frequency of updating treatment plans? a. Following sentencing b. Upon release to a community setting c. At all transition points d. Both A and B c. At all transition points 38. How many problem domains are addressed in the Addiction Severity Index (ASI)? a. Six b. Eight c. Ten d. Twelve a. Six 39. The Addiction Severity Index has been formally adopted by which organization? a. The Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA) b. The Center on Drug and Alcohol Research (CDAR) c. The National Institute on Drug Abuse (NIDA) d. The Institute for Governmental Service and Research (IGSR) c. The National Institute on Drug Abuse (NIDA) 40. What does it mean if an assessment instrument is valid? a. The instrument is licensed for use by professionals. b. The instrument consistently provides accurate information. c. The instrument has been approved by the government for use. d. The instrument assesses what it purports to assess. d. The instrument assesses what it purports to assess. 41. All of the following are true of depression and substance abuse EXCEPT that a. drugs of abuse can successfully treat depression. b. depression can lead to self-medication with drugs of abuse. c. drugs of abuse can induce symptoms of depression. d. drugs of abuse can worsen symptoms of depression. a. drugs of abuse can successfully treat depression. 42. How does motivation for participating in treatment differ from motivation to change behaviors? a. There is no difference between treatment and behavior change motivation. b. Motivation for behavioral change precedes motivation for treatment. c. Motivation for change is internal; treatment may be pushed on a client. d. Motivation for treatment precedes motivation for behavioral change. c. Motivation for change is internal; treatment may be pushed on a client. 43. What of the following is NOT a key component in a treatment plan? a. Problem statements from the intake assessment b. Goal statements derived from problem statements c. Objectives, which are what the client will do to meet treatment goals d. The theoretical approach to be operationalized via treatment d. The theoretical approach to be operationalized via treatment The key components of a treatment plan include: (1) problem statements, which are based on information obtained during the assessment; (2) goal statements, which are derived from the problem statements; (3) objectives, which consist of what the client will do to meet treatment goals; and (4) interventions, which are defined as what the staff will do to assist the client. 44. What does the SOAP progress note acronym stand for? a. Subjective, Overview, Actions, and Plan b. Subjective, Objective, Assessment, and Plan c. Subjective, Observation, Assessment, and Plan d. Subjective, Overview, Attention, and Plan b. Subjective, Objective, Assessment, and Plan 45. What does the DAP progress note acronym stand for? a. Description, Assessment, and Progress b. Details, Assessment, and Progress c. Documentation, Actions, and Pending d. Data, Assessment, and Plan d. Data, Assessment, and Plan 46. The mnemonic DIG-FAST evaluates which psychological state? a. Depression b. Anxiety c. Paranoia d. Mania d. Mania D) distractibility (easily distracted as evidenced by an inability to concentrate), I) indiscretion (excessive pleasure activities), G) grandiosity (larger-than-life feelings of superiority, wealth, power, etc., often experienced during manic, hypomanic or mixed episodes), F) flights of ideas (mind is racing, seemingly unable to control or slow down thoughts), A) activity (markedly increased activity, with weight loss and increased libido), S) sleep deficit (unable to sleep for extended periods well below normal sleep needs but not drug induced), T) talkativeness (pressured speech: rapid, virtually nonstop, often loud and emphatic, seemingly driven, and usually hard to interrupt). 47. How does the Center for Substance Abuse Treatment (CSAT) recommend that substance abuse be considered and treated? a. A psychological disorder b. An acute disease c. A chronic treatable condition d. A degenerative treatable disorder c. A chronic treatable condition 48. How does the Center for Substance Abuse Treatment (CSAT) indicate that treatment or interventions provided following discharge from a formal inpatient or outpatient program be referred to? a. After care b. Continuing care c. Follow-up care d. Post-discharge care b. Continuing care 49. What is the BEST distinction between substance abuse treatment programs and mutual-help groups, such as a twelve-step support groups? a. Programs offer help, and groups offer support. b. Programs are expensive, and groups are free. c. Programs are run by professionals, and groups are run by laypersons. d. Programs offer treatment, and groups offer support. d. Programs offer treatment, and groups offer support. 50. According to the American Society of Addiction Medicine (ASAM), what is the minimum of treatment time the intensive outpatient treatment (IOT) must provide? a. Three hours of treatment per week b. Six hours of treatment per week c. Nine hours of treatment per week d. Twelve hours of treatment per week c. Nine hours of treatment per week 51. Which of the following is NOT a core feature or service that the Center for Substance Abuse Treatment (CSAT) consensus panel agreed upon? a. Biopsychosocial assessment b. Individualized treatment planning c. Case management d. Recreational therapy d. Recreational therapy 52. Which form of substance abuse is naltrexone used to treat? a. Alcohol dependence b. Opioid dependence c. Both A and B d. Neither A nor B c. Both A and B 53. Which of the following is NOT a core treatment and recovery skill? a. Stress management b. Substance refusal training c. Exercise and health training d. Relaxation training c. Exercise and health training 54. Which of the following is NOT a primary learning style? a. Gustatory b. Kinesthetic c. Auditory d. Visual a. Gustatory 55. What is the influence of family on treatment outcomes? a. Treatment outcomes are improved with family support. b. Treatment outcomes are worse with family involvement. c. Both A and B d. Neither A nor B c. Both A and B 56. How many main levels exist in the substance abuse continuum of care, according to the American Society of Addiction Medicine (ASAM)? a. Three levels of care b. Four levels of care c. Five levels of care d. Six levels of care c. Five levels of care Level 0.5: early intervention services (subclinical or pretreatment, exploring risks and addressing problems or risk factors that appear to be related to substance use); Level I: outpatient services (nonresidential, less than nine hours per week); Level II: intensive outpatient or partial hospitalization services— nonresidential, a minimum of nine hours per week (Level II is subdivided into levels II.1 and II.5); Level III: residential or inpatient services—minimum of twenty-five hours per week (Level III is subdivided into levels III.1, III.3, III.5, and III.7); and Level IV: medically managed intensive inpatient services (subacute, with daily physician supervision). These levels are not discrete but rather points on a treatment continuum. 57. How many sequential stages must outpatient clients work through, regardless of the level of care at which they enter treatment? a. Two stages b. Four stages c. Six stages d. Eight stages b. Four stages Stage 1—treatment engagement (establish a treatment contract including goals and client responsibilities; resolve acute crises; develop a therapeutic alliance; and prepare a treatment plan); Stage 2—early recovery (continue abstinence; sustain behavioral changes; terminate a drug-using lifestyle and develop drug-free alternatives; learn relapse triggers and prevention strategies; identify and resolve contributing personal problems; and begin a twelve-step or mutual-help program); Stage 3—maintenance (solidify abstinence; deepen relapse prevention skills; enhance emotional functioning; increase sober social networks; and address other problem areas); Stage 4—community support (sustain abstinence and a healthy lifestyle; establish treatment independence; extend social network and support group connections; pursue healthy community activities; and solidify important outlet activities and pursue new interests). 58. What is the usual recommended minimum duration of days for the intensive outpatient treatment (IOT) phase?