AMLS Post-Test Questions & Answers - (All Correct)
1. A 45-year-old patient is found supine on the floor. Healthcare providers note
pinpoint pupils, shallow respirations, and vomitus in and around the mouth. What
course of action should be taken next? - answers b. Supplemental oxygen and
suction
2. Patients with a history of COPD that present with an acute onset of shortness of
breath are likely to have what condition? - answers a. Pulmonary embolism
3. During compensatory shock, the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is
activated to cause a/an: - answers a. Increase in preload, afterload, and re-
absorption of sodium
4. What clinical findings are most commonly associated with a pulmonary embolus? -
answers a. Clear breath sounds with tachypnea
5. What condition is most likely to cause respiratory acidosis? - answers b. Narcotic
overdose
6. A 55-year-old complains of an 'aching' chest discomfort that persists over several
days. The patient has a temperature of 101F (38.3C). Which finding will help narrow
the diagnosis to pericarditis? - answers d. ST-segment elevation in all leads
7. Anaphylaxis is most associated with which physiological event? - answers b.
Vasodilation
8. Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS) is characterized by what
pathological change? - answers c. Breakdown of the alveolar-capillary membrane
9. Continuous positive airway pressure would be most beneficial in treating which
patient? - answers b. A 22yo with severe asthma who is not responding to nebulizer
treatments
10. What is the initial treatment for a patient experiencing hyperosmolar
hyperglycemic nonketotic coma (HHNC)? - answers a. Crystalloid IV fluid
administration
11. Your patient has had a seizure secondary to a nerve agent exposure. What
medication would be best to diminish the seizure? - answers c. Midazolam
12. Respiratory alkalosis may occur as a result of: - answers a. Fever and anxiety
13. An age-related change that increases the risk of respiratory compromise is: -
answers c. Decrease in lung compliance
14. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is most common in patients with a history of: -
answers a. Left-sided heart failure (?)
15. The patient presents with a history of fever and an upper respiratory infection.
Historical information reveals increasing water intake, orthostatic hypotension, and
, AMLS Post-Test Questions & Answers - (All Correct)
an increase in urination. You suspect these symptoms are caused by: - answers a.
Hyperglycemia
16. You are dispatched to the home of a 32yo patient with a history of Graves'
disease. The patient was in the ER earlier today for some "tests for my ulcers." He
received contrast and was discharged. He is now complaining of not feeling well,
chest pain, and palpitations. You note an anxious patient with fine tremors. He is
diaphoretic and has a temperature of 101.5F, BP 100/62, P 156 (sinus tach), R 30,
glucose level 133. Which of the following are management considerations for this
patient? - answers d. Beta Blockers
17. Metabolic acidosis is best described by which arterial blood gas interpretation? -
answers b. pH decreased, pCO2 decreased, H2CO3 low (?)
18. The AMLS Assessment Pathway first advises safety and initial observations of
the scene. The second process described in this pathway asks the healthcare
provider to: - answers c. Identify and manage life threats
19. Observing a patient's body positioning can be an early indicator that the patient
is: - answers a. Sick or not sick
20. Which assessment finding is crucial to obtain from a patient suspected of a
stroke? - answers c. Onset of symptoms
21. A 62yo patient presents with a severe headache. It is described as a
"thunderclap" accompanied with nausea, blurred vision, and an elevated blood
pressure. What neurologic condition is most likely the cause of this patient's
presentation? - answers d. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
22. A 38yo presents with mild chest tightness and urticaria after mowing the lawn.
He felt a "sting" in his left lower leg and states the symptoms came on suddenly. BP
130/82, P 100, R 20 with a normal work of breathing and clear lung sounds. The
healthcare provider should: - answers b. Initiate an IV with 0.09% NS and monitor
the patient carefully
23. Healthcare providers are treating a patient complaining of substernal chest pain
accompanied with nausea and one episode of vomiting. The patient has had two
cardiac stents placed within the last year. He has a familial history of heart disease
and takes a baby aspirin daily. What information is most concerning? - answers b.
Recent stent placement
24. The patient complains of sharp chest pain that worsens when supine. He is bed
ridden due to complications from a recent hip surgery. The patient is tachypneic and
the ECG reveals sinus tachycardia. What is the patient's working diagnosis? -
answers d. Pulmonary embolism
25. A patient is a resident in an assisted living facility to obtain physical therapy after
a knee replacement surgery. She complains of a rash that is red and has small
1. A 45-year-old patient is found supine on the floor. Healthcare providers note
pinpoint pupils, shallow respirations, and vomitus in and around the mouth. What
course of action should be taken next? - answers b. Supplemental oxygen and
suction
2. Patients with a history of COPD that present with an acute onset of shortness of
breath are likely to have what condition? - answers a. Pulmonary embolism
3. During compensatory shock, the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is
activated to cause a/an: - answers a. Increase in preload, afterload, and re-
absorption of sodium
4. What clinical findings are most commonly associated with a pulmonary embolus? -
answers a. Clear breath sounds with tachypnea
5. What condition is most likely to cause respiratory acidosis? - answers b. Narcotic
overdose
6. A 55-year-old complains of an 'aching' chest discomfort that persists over several
days. The patient has a temperature of 101F (38.3C). Which finding will help narrow
the diagnosis to pericarditis? - answers d. ST-segment elevation in all leads
7. Anaphylaxis is most associated with which physiological event? - answers b.
Vasodilation
8. Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS) is characterized by what
pathological change? - answers c. Breakdown of the alveolar-capillary membrane
9. Continuous positive airway pressure would be most beneficial in treating which
patient? - answers b. A 22yo with severe asthma who is not responding to nebulizer
treatments
10. What is the initial treatment for a patient experiencing hyperosmolar
hyperglycemic nonketotic coma (HHNC)? - answers a. Crystalloid IV fluid
administration
11. Your patient has had a seizure secondary to a nerve agent exposure. What
medication would be best to diminish the seizure? - answers c. Midazolam
12. Respiratory alkalosis may occur as a result of: - answers a. Fever and anxiety
13. An age-related change that increases the risk of respiratory compromise is: -
answers c. Decrease in lung compliance
14. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is most common in patients with a history of: -
answers a. Left-sided heart failure (?)
15. The patient presents with a history of fever and an upper respiratory infection.
Historical information reveals increasing water intake, orthostatic hypotension, and
, AMLS Post-Test Questions & Answers - (All Correct)
an increase in urination. You suspect these symptoms are caused by: - answers a.
Hyperglycemia
16. You are dispatched to the home of a 32yo patient with a history of Graves'
disease. The patient was in the ER earlier today for some "tests for my ulcers." He
received contrast and was discharged. He is now complaining of not feeling well,
chest pain, and palpitations. You note an anxious patient with fine tremors. He is
diaphoretic and has a temperature of 101.5F, BP 100/62, P 156 (sinus tach), R 30,
glucose level 133. Which of the following are management considerations for this
patient? - answers d. Beta Blockers
17. Metabolic acidosis is best described by which arterial blood gas interpretation? -
answers b. pH decreased, pCO2 decreased, H2CO3 low (?)
18. The AMLS Assessment Pathway first advises safety and initial observations of
the scene. The second process described in this pathway asks the healthcare
provider to: - answers c. Identify and manage life threats
19. Observing a patient's body positioning can be an early indicator that the patient
is: - answers a. Sick or not sick
20. Which assessment finding is crucial to obtain from a patient suspected of a
stroke? - answers c. Onset of symptoms
21. A 62yo patient presents with a severe headache. It is described as a
"thunderclap" accompanied with nausea, blurred vision, and an elevated blood
pressure. What neurologic condition is most likely the cause of this patient's
presentation? - answers d. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
22. A 38yo presents with mild chest tightness and urticaria after mowing the lawn.
He felt a "sting" in his left lower leg and states the symptoms came on suddenly. BP
130/82, P 100, R 20 with a normal work of breathing and clear lung sounds. The
healthcare provider should: - answers b. Initiate an IV with 0.09% NS and monitor
the patient carefully
23. Healthcare providers are treating a patient complaining of substernal chest pain
accompanied with nausea and one episode of vomiting. The patient has had two
cardiac stents placed within the last year. He has a familial history of heart disease
and takes a baby aspirin daily. What information is most concerning? - answers b.
Recent stent placement
24. The patient complains of sharp chest pain that worsens when supine. He is bed
ridden due to complications from a recent hip surgery. The patient is tachypneic and
the ECG reveals sinus tachycardia. What is the patient's working diagnosis? -
answers d. Pulmonary embolism
25. A patient is a resident in an assisted living facility to obtain physical therapy after
a knee replacement surgery. She complains of a rash that is red and has small
