Contempo Coding CPC Practice Exam 2020 correctly answered

Contempo Coding CPC Practice Exam 2020 correctly answered When coding an operative report, what action would NOT be recommended? a. Starting with the procedure listed. b. Reading the body of the report. c. Coding from the header without reading the body of the report. d. Highlighting unfamiliar words. ANS: C Rationale: Operative report coding tips include reviewing the documentation in the detail of the procedure to further clarify or define both procedures and diagnoses. Which coding manuals do outpatient coders focus on learning? a. CPT®, HCPCS Level II, ICD-10-CM, ICD-10-PCS b. ICD-10-CM and ICD-10-PCS c. CPT®, HCPCS Level II and ICD-10-CM d. CPT® and ICD-10-CM ANS: C Rationale: Outpatient coding focuses on provider services. Outpatient coders will focus on learning CPT®, HCPCS Level II and ICD-10-CM. 00:11 01:38 Evaluation and management services are often provided in a standard format such as SOAP notes. What does the acronym SOAP stand for? a. Standard, Objective, Activity, Period b. Scope, Observation, Action, Plan c. Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan d. Source, Opinion, Advice, Provider ANS: C Rationale: S-Subjective, O-Objective, A-Assessment, P-Plan According to the OIG, internal monitoring and auditing should be performed by what means? a. Periodic audits. b. Focused audits on problems brought to the attention of the compliance officer. c. Audits on all denied claims. d. Baseline audits. ANS: A Rationale: A key component of an effective compliance program includes internal monitoring and auditing through the performance of periodic audits. This ongoing evaluation includes not only whether the provider practice's standards and procedures are in fact current and accurate, but also whether the compliance program is working, (for example, whether individuals are properly carrying out their responsibilities and claims are submitted appropriately). What type of insurance is Medicare Part D? a. A Medicare Advantage program managed by private insurers. b. Hospital coverage available to all Medicare beneficiaries. c. Prescription drug coverage available to all Medicare beneficiaries. d. Provider coverage requiring monthly premiums. ANS: C Rationale: Medicare Part D is a prescription drug program available to all Medicare beneficiaries for a fee. Private companies approved by Medicare provide the coverage. What type of health insurance provides coverage for low-income families? a. Medicaid b. Medicare c. Commercial PPO d. Commercial HMO ANS: A Rationale: Medicaid is a health insurance assistance program for some low-income people (especially children and pregnant women) sponsored by federal and state governments. According to the AAPC Code of Ethics, which term is NOT listed as an ethical principle of professional conduct? a. Integrity b. Responsibility c. Efficiency d. Commitment ANS: C Rationale: It shall be the responsibility of every AAPC member, as a condition of continued membership, to conduct themselves in all professional activities in a manner consistent with ALL of the following ethical principles of professional conduct: · Integrity · Respect · Commitment · Competence · Fairness · Responsibility What distinguishes a sentinel node from other lymph nodes? a. A sentinel node is swollen or diseased b. A sentinel node is the first lymph node in a group of nodes to be reached by metastasizing cancer cells c. A sentinel node stores white blood cells d. A sentinel node contains both afferent and efferent lymph vessels b. A sentinel node is the first lymph node in a group of nodes to be reached by metastasizing cancer cells An ectopic pregnancy is a complication in which the fertilized ovum is implanted in any tissue other than the ____. a. Ampulla b. Ovary c. Fimbria d. Uterine wall d. Uterine wall Which cells produce hormones to regulate blood sugar? a. Eosinophils b. Pancreatic islets c. Hemoglobin d. Target cells b. Pancreatic islets What are chemicals which relay, amplify and modulate signals between a neuron and another cell? a. Neurotransmitters b. Hormones c. Interneurons d. Myelin a. Neurotransmitters Impetigo is best described as: a. A dry, scaly condition of the skin b. A bacterial skin infection c. Severe itching d. Acute eruption of vesicles along the path of a nerve b. A bacterial skin infection 00:02 01:38 Inflammation of the membrane lining the abdominal cavity and covering the abdominal organs is called: a. Peritonitis b. Ulcerative colitis c. Diverticulosis d. Diverticulitis a. Peritonitis A patient is diagnosed with inflammation of the testis and epididymis. The medical term for this condition is: a. Orchialgia b. Epididymitis c. Vesiculitis d. Orchiepididymitis d. Orchiepididymitis Melasma is defined as: a. Brownish pigmentation appearing on the face b. A dark vertical line appearing on the abdomen c. A discharge of mucus and blood d. Lines where the skin has been stretched a. Brownish pigmentation appearing on the face The process of preserving cells or whole tissues at extremely low temperatures is known as: a. Cryotherapy b. Cryopexy c. Cryalgesia d. Cryopreservation d. Cryopreservation A diagnostic tool in sleep medicine is: a. Electroencephalography b. Polysomnography c. Electromyography d. Electrocorticography b. Polysomnography In the ICD-10-CM Alphabetic Index what is the code next to the main term called? a. Category Code b. Subcategory Code c. Default Code d. Unspecified Code ANS: C Rationale: The Alphabetic Index utilizes the same main term/subterm indexing systems. In ICD-10-CM, the code listed next to the main term is considered the default code. The default code represents the condition most commonly associated with the main term. As with all code assignment, always verify the default code in the Tabular List to assure proper reporting. Refer to ICD-10-CM guideline I.A.18. What is an example of an eponym? a. Neuropathy b. Paget's disease c. Salpingo-oophoritis d. Xanthoma ANS: B Rationale: An eponym is a word derived from someone's name. Paget's disease is a disorder that involves abnormal bone destruction and regrowth which results in deformity. It was described by surgeon and pathologist Sir James Paget. When coding for an ambulatory surgical procedure, how is the diagnosis determined? a. Code the preoperative diagnosis because it is the most definitive. b. Code the preoperative diagnosis and postoperative diagnosis if the diagnoses are different. c. Code the postoperative diagnosis because it is the most definitive. d. Z codes are always reported for ambulatory surgery. ANS: C Rationale: For ambulatory surgery, if the postoperative diagnosis is known to be different from the preoperative diagnosis at the time the diagnosis is confirmed, select the postoperative diagnosis for coding because it is the most definitive. Refer to ICD-10-CM guideline IV.N. What does the root word colp/o stand for? a. Cervix b. Vagina c. Uterus d. Fallopian Tubes ANS: B Rationale: Colp/o is the combining form referring to the vagina. As examples, colpocele (N81.5) and colpocystitis (N76.0) are medical conditions of the vagina. What chapter contains codes for diseases and disorders of the nails? a. Chapter 13: Diseases of the Musculoskeletal and Connective Tissue b. Chapter 16: Certain Conditions Originating in the Perinatal Period c. Chapter 14: Diseases of the Genitourinary System d. Chapter 12: Diseases of the Skin and Subcutaneous Tissue ANS: D Rationale: In the ICD-10-CM Alphabetic Index, look for Disease, diseased/nails which refers you to code L60.9. In the Tabular List code L60.9 is in Chapter 12: Diseases of the Skin and Subcutaneous Tissue. What is NOT an example of active treatment for pathological fractures? a. Surgical treatment b. Emergency department encounter c. Evaluation and treatment by a new provider d. Cast change ANS: D Rationale: According to ICD-10-CM guideline I.C.19.a, examples of active treatment are: surgical treatment, emergency department encounter, and evaluation and continuing treatment by the same or different provider. Cast change is considered subsequent treatment. What codes are voluntarily reported to payers and provide evidence-based performance-measure data? a. CPT® Category I codes b. CPT® Category II codes c. CPT® Category III codes d. HCPCS Level II codes ANS: B Rationale: Per AMA, CPT® Category II codes are a set of supplemental tracking codes used for performance measurement. What agency maintains and distributes HCPCS Level II codes? a. AMA b. CMS c. OIG d. NIH ANS: B Rationale: CMS maintains and distributes HCPCS Level II codes. What does "non-facility" describe when calculating Medicare Physician Fee Schedule payments? a. Hospitals b. Nursing homes c. Non-hospital owned physician practices d. Hospital owned physician practices ANS: C Rationale: "Non-facility" location calculations are for private practices or non-hospital-owned physician practices. Reimbursement is higher for private practices because the practice incurs the full expense of providing the service. What type of print indicates new additions and revisions in the CPT® codebook each year? a. Italic print b. Red print c. Green print d. Bold print ANS: C Rationale: New additions and revisions in the CPT® code book each year appear in green print. If a CPT® code and a HCPCS Level II code exist for the same service, which one does Medicare prefer to report? a. HCPCS Level II code b. CPT® code c. CPT® and HCPCS Level II codes d. It depends on the payer ANS: A Rationale: CMS prefers the HCPCS Level II code be reported for Medicare rather than the CPT® code when a code for the same service exists in both code sets. What is another term for hives? a. Rash b. Eruption c. Urticaria d. Dermatitis ANS: C Rationale: Urticaria can also be described as hives and shows on the skin as raised, red, itchy wheals. What term best describes a mass of hypertrophic scar tissue? a. Keloid b. Pilonidal cyst c. Dermatofibroma d. Congenital nevus ANS: A Rationale: A keloid scar is excess growth of connective tissue during the healing process. What is the acromion? a. Part of the elbow joint b. Ligament near the knee c. Tendon in the shoulder d. Extension of the scapula ANS: D Rationale: The acromion is an extension of the scapula that meets the clavicle at the shoulder to form the acromioclavicular joint. The acronym BKA means: a. bilateral knee arthritis b. bursitis knee & arthritis c. bilateral knee amputation d. below knee amputation ANS: D Rationale: BKA is the acronym for below-knee amputation. Which main coronary artery bifurcates into two smaller ones? a. Right b. Left c. Inverted d. Superficial ANS: B Rationale: The left main coronary artery branches into two slightly smaller arteries: the left anterior descending coronary artery and the left circumflex coronary artery. What is a bilateral structure of the female reproductive system? a. Bartholin's gland b. Fallopian tubes c. Ovaries d. All of the above ANS: D Rationale: The Bartholin's glands (also called the greater vestibular glands) are located slightly below and to either side of the vaginal introitus. The Fallopian tubes are two tubes, one on either side of the uterus, leading from the bilateral ovaries into the uterus. What specificity is added to Alzheimer's disease in ICD-10-CM? a. The stage of Alzheimer's disease. b. The onset of Alzheimer's disease. c. Neurological manifestations of Alzheimer's disease. d. Visual disturbances associated with Alzheimer's disease ANS: B