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CMLA Exam 2023 Review Rated 100% Correct

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The most commonly performed test for anticoagulation therapy is: - Answer the prothrombin time If a urine specimen cannot be tested within ________ it should be refrigerated. - Answer 1 hour Insufficient centrifugation while performing a microhematocrit will result in: - Answer a false increase in hematocrit value A decrease in the number of white blood cells is known as: - Answer leukopenia Which urine parameter would be abnormal when a patient has been fasting? - Answer ketones Patients with uncontrolled diabetes will have abnormal results in the following urine parameter(s): - Answer glucose and ketones The change in the shape of erythrocytes as observed on a peripheral smear is described as: - Answer poikilocytosis The most common test performed in the hematology department is: - Answer CBC - complete blood count What does an elevated ESR (erythrocyte sedimentation rate) indicate? - Answer inflammation What mineral is essential for hemoglobin production? - Answer iron What is the major Hgb found in the RBCs of patients with sickle cell anemia? - Answer Hgb S The term for increased white blood cell count is: - Answer leukocytosis The function of the kidney is to remove _____ and reabsorb ____. - Answer waste products, water What is the normal WBC differential lymphocyte percentage in the adult population? - Answer 20%-44% Which urine parameter would be abnormal if there were bacteria present in the urine? - Answer nitrates The ratio of the volume of RBC to the total volume of blood is known as: - Answer hematocrit Which WBC produces antibodies? - Answer lymphocytes The most common cause of leukocytosis is: - Answer a bacterial infection How is a sterile urine sample collected? - Answer by having the nurse collect while using a catheter Which of the following cells are phagocytic? - Answer neutrophils and monocytes What cells are involved in hemostasis? - Answer platelets Variation in red cell size observed on a peripheral smear is described as: - Answer anisocytosis What is the total magnification of a microscope with a 10X eyepiece and a 40X objective? - Answer 400 A urine sample can be refrigerated for up to _______ and must be allowed to warm to room temperature prior to testing. - Answer 4 hours What is the normal range for urine specific gravity? - Answer 1.010 to 1.025 The process by which a cell engulfs a foreign material such as a bacteria or virus is known as: - Answer phagocytosis What will happen to the WBC count in a patient with acute appendicitis? - Answer it will be elevated What type of cell will be increased in cases of mononucleosis (mono)? - Answer atypical lymphocytes What causes an ammonia smell in urine? - Answer excessive bacteria Which urine parameter would be abnormal if a patient has chronic high blood pressure? - Answer protein Which urine parameter would be abnormal in a patient with uncontrolled diabetes? - Answer ketones What is the blood tube of choice for the hematology department? - Answer lavender (EDTA) Most hematology tests are performed on: - Answer whole blood Which urine test measures the glomerular filtration rate - the amount of blood filtered by the kidneys? - Answer creatinine clearance Which phagocytic cell produce lysozymes? - Answer neutrophils What is the path of urine through the urinary system? - Answer kidney › ureter › bladder › urethra Which of the following laboratory test is performed in the hematology department? - Answer reticulocyte count What is the main function of white blood cells? - Answer to protect from infection What parts of the microscope affect the amount of light through the specimen? - Answer diaphragm, condenser What microscope objective is used for initial focusing? - Answer coarse adjustment using a low-power objective Which urine parameter measures the number of solutes in the urine? - Answer specific gravity A patient with an allergic reaction will have an increased number of these types of cells: - Answer eosinophils Laboratory refrigerators should be kept at the following temperature: - Answer 1°C to 6°C Which of the following is NOT a type of white blood cell? - Answer platelet What is the primary function of RBCs? - Answer to carry oxygen How much time should pass before a Westergren ESR result is read? - Answer 1 hour An increased sedimentation rate is seen in the following condition: - Answer pregnancy, cancer, connective tissue disorders What stain is used on a peripheral blood smear to differentiate the cells? - Answer Wright's Stain The most common metabolic disorder discovered by a urine dipstick is: - Answer diabetes What is the oxygen carrying component of red blood cells? - Answer hemoglobin What is produced by the breakdown of hemoglobin? - Answer bilirubin What is the preferred specimen for a differential? - Answer EDTA What virus causes mononucleosis (mono)? - Answer epstein barr virus Which of the following are part of a routine urinalysis? - Answer physical, chemical, microscopic Which RBC disorder changes the hemoglobin molecule? - Answer sickle cell anemia What is NOT a physical property of urine? - Answer glucose level What is the major type of WBC seen in the peripheral smear of a patient with aplastic anemia? - Answer lymphocyte What percent of blood are RBCs in an average adult? - Answer 40%-45% Specimens used to test the accuracy of urinalysis procedures, reagents, and equipment are: - Answer urine controls Which one of the following is the urine specimen of choice for bacteriological examination? - Answer clean catch, mid stream There is a pathological condition in which system if a patient has the following urinalysis results? Leuk: Positive pH: 6.5 Pro: trace WBC: 15-20 Bact: Positive Nitrite: Positive - Answer genitourinary Which of the following is NOT a protein found in urine? - Answer urobilinogen What is the correct order of steps when performing a microscopic urine? - Answer centrifuge, place drop on slide, observe with low-power field, record results A positive nitrate result in a urine sample indicates: - Answer bacteria A positive leukocyte esterase result in a urine sample indicates: - Answer white blood cells A 24 hour Creatinine Clearance test is used to determine the function of the: - Answer kidney What is a patient's most common mistake while collecting a 24 hour urine sample? - Answer not collecting all of the urine A false positive nitrate on a urine sample indicates: - Answer improper storage A gradual change in the mean that proceeds in one direction over six or more consecutive days is known as a: - Answer trend What does the term syncope mean? - Answer fainting For a lab having a Certificate of Provider Performed Microscopy, what type of healthcare provider would NOT be allowed to perform microscopic procedures? - Answer medical assistant Who can give consent for treatment if the patient is a married minor? - Answer the patient themselves Another type of testing that can ensure accuracy in addition to QC is: - Answer proficiency testing Which of the following analytes would be most affected by a hemolyzed specimen? - Answer K+ Liver enzymes can easily be assessed through: - Answer blood testing A specimen that is divided into two parts an analyzed in two different laboratories to check for accuracy is: - Answer split specimen What is the name of the muscle of the chest? - Answer pectoralis major The pathogen most commonly isolated from a wound infection is: - Answer staphylococcus areus To protect confidentiality, what question should a healthcare worker ask themselves before looking at a patient's medical information? - Answer Do I need to know this? How many stool samples are needed for an O&P? - Answer 3 fresh The value of QC material provided by the manufacturer is known as: - Answer target value A sudden change in the mean that becomes continuous is known as: - Answer shift Which term describes the TOP portion of a centrifuged specimen? - Answer supernatant When blood is allowed to coagulate, the liquid portion is known as: - Answer serum Where should a fingerstick be performed? - Answer on the 2nd or 3rd finger What is it called to be free from infectious organisms? - Answer aseptic The HIPAA privacy rule does not protect patient information that is: - Answer accidentally overheard In a normal distribution curve, more values are: - Answer close to the mean If the laboratory receives a tube with no name, what is the proper procedure? - Answer discard it and ask for a redraw Quality Control is plotted on a: - Answer Levey-Jennings chart What information must always be clearly noted in a prominent area of a patient's file, such as the front cover or immediately inside the cover? - Answer any known drug allergies What does Universal Precautions mean to a healthcare worker? - Answer to treat everything as contaminated

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