Exam (elaborations)
HESI Critical Care Exam – Questions With Correct Answers
- Course
- Critical Care
- Institution
- Critical Care
HESI Critical Care Exam – Questions With Correct Answers
[Show more]
Content preview
HESI Critical Care Exam – Questions With CorrectAnswers
A 56-year-old female client is receiving intracavitary radiation via a radium
implant. Which
nurse should be assigned to care for this client?
A. The nurse who is caring for another client receiving intracavitary radiation.
B. A nurse with Marfan's syndrome who is postmenopausal.
C. A nurse with oncology experience who may be pregnant.
D. The nurse who is caring for another client who has Clostridium difficile.
Correct Ans - B. A nurse with Marfan's syndrome who is postmenopausal.
RATIONALE:
A client receiving intracavity radiation poses a radiation hazard as long as the
intracavity
radiation source is in place. A nurse's ability to care of this client is not
affected by Marfan's
syndrome (B), which is a hereditary disorder of connective tissues, bones,
muscles, ligaments
and skeletal structures. The goal is to limit any one staff member's exposure to
the calculated
time span based on the half-life of radium, such as the number of minutes at
the bedside per day,
so (A) should not be assigned. (C) should not be exposed to the radiation due
to the possible
effect on the fetus. A radiation exposure decreases the immune response in
the client who should
not be exposed to the potential inadvertent transmission of an infectious
organism (D).
1.A client who has active tuberculosis (TB) is admitted to the medical unit.
What action is most
important for the nurse to implement?
A. Fit the client with a respirator mask.
B. Assign the client to a negative air-flow room.
C. Don a clean gown for client care.
D. Place an isolation cart in the hallway Correct Ans - Assign the client
to a negative air-flow room
RATIONALE:
,Active tuberculosis requires implementation of airborne precautions, so the
client should be
assigned to a negative pressure air-flow room (D). Although (A and C) should
be implemented
for clients in isolation with contact precautions, it is most important that air
flow from the room
is minimized when the client has TB. (B) should be implemented when the
client leaves the
isolation environment.
2.A client is receiving atenolol (Tenormin) 25 mg PO after a myocardial
infarction. The nurse
determines the client's apical pulse is 65 beats per minute. What action should
the nurse
implement
next?
A. Measure the blood pressure.
B. Reassess the apical pulse.
C. Notify the healthcare provider.
D. Administer the medication. Correct Ans - Administer the medication
RATIONALE:
Atenolol, a beta-blocker, blocks the beta receptors of the sinoatrial node to
reduce the heart rate,
so the medication should be administered (C) because the client's apical pulse
is greater than 60.
(A, B, and D) are not indicated at this time.
3.The nurse is assessing a client and identifies a bruit over the thyroid. This
finding is consistent
with which interpretation?
A. Hypothyroidism.
B. Thyroid cyst.
C. Thyroid cancer.
D. Hyperthyroidism Correct Ans - Hyperthyroidism
Rationale:Hyperthyroidism (D) is an enlargement of the thyroid gland, often
referred to as a goiter, and a
bruit may be auscultated over the goiter due to an increase in glandular
vascularity which
,increases as the thyroid gland becomes hyperactive. A bruit is not common
with (A, B, and C).
A 6-year-old child is alert but quiet when brought to the emergency center
with periorbital ecchymosis and ecchymosis behind the ears. The nurse
suspects potential child abuse and continues to assess the child for additional
manifestations of a basilar skull fracture. What
assessment finding would be consistent with a basilar skull fracture?
A. Hematemesis and abdominal distention.
B. Asymmetry of the face and eye movements.
C. Rhinorrhoea or otorrhoea with Halo sign.
D. Abnormal position and movement of the arm. Correct Ans -
Rhinorrhoea or otorrhoea with Halo sign.
RATIONALE:
Raccoon eyes (periorbital ecchymosis) and Battle's sign (ecchymosis behind
the ear over the
mastoid process) are both signs of a basilar skull fracture, so the nurse should
assess for possible
meningeal tears that manifest as a Halo sign with CSF leakage from the ears or
nose (D). (A) is
consistent with orbital fractures. (B) occurs with wrenching traumas of the
shoulder or arm
fractures. (C) occurs with blunt abdominal injuries.
The nurse is assessing a client who complains of weight loss, racing heart rate,
and difficulty
sleeping. The nurse determines the client has moist skin with fine hair,
prominent eyes, lid
retraction, and a staring expression. These findings are consistent with which
disorder?
A. Grave's disease.
B. Multiple sclerosis.
C. Addison's disease.
D. Cushing syndrome. Correct Ans - Grave's disease
RATIONALE:
This client is exhibiting symptoms associated with hyperthyroidism or Grave's
disease (A),
which is an autoimmune condition affecting the thyroid. (B, C, and D) are not
associated with
, these symptoms.
The nurse is assessing an older client and determines that the client's left
upper eyelid droops,
covering more of the iris than the right eyelid. Which description should the
nurse use to
document this finding?
A. A nystagmus on the left.
B. Exophthalmos on the right.
C. Ptosis on the left eyelid.
D. Astigmatism on the right. Correct Ans - Ptosis on the left eyelid
Rationale: Ptosis is the term to describe an eyelid droop that covers a large
portion of the iris (A), which
may result from oculomotor nerve or eyelid muscle disorder. (B) is
characterized by rapid,
rhythmic movement of both eyes. (C) is a distortion of the lens of the eye,
causing decreased
visual acuity. (D) is a term used to describe a protrusion of the eyeballs that
occurs with
hyperthyroidism.
The nurse is assessing a child's weight and height during a clinic visit prior to
starting school.
The nurse plots the child's weight on the growth chart and notes that the
child's weight is in the
95th percentile for the child's height. What action should the nurse take?
A. Question the type and quantity of foods eaten in a typical day.
B. Encourage giving two additional snacks each day to the child.
C. Recommend a daily intake of at least four glasses of whole milk.
D. Assess for signs of poor nutrition, such as a pale appearance Correct
Ans - A. Question the type and quantity of foods eaten in a typical day.
RATIONALE:
The child is overweight for height, so assessment of the child's daily diet (C)
should be
determined. The child does not need (A or B), both of which will increase the
child's weight.
Poor nutrition (D) is commonly seen in underweight children, not overweight.
The benefits of buying summaries with Stuvia:
Guaranteed quality through customer reviews
Stuvia customers have reviewed more than 700,000 summaries. This how you know that you are buying the best documents.
Quick and easy check-out
You can quickly pay through credit card or Stuvia-credit for the summaries. There is no membership needed.
Focus on what matters
Your fellow students write the study notes themselves, which is why the documents are always reliable and up-to-date. This ensures you quickly get to the core!
Frequently asked questions
What do I get when I buy this document?
You get a PDF, available immediately after your purchase. The purchased document is accessible anytime, anywhere and indefinitely through your profile.
Satisfaction guarantee: how does it work?
Our satisfaction guarantee ensures that you always find a study document that suits you well. You fill out a form, and our customer service team takes care of the rest.
Who am I buying these notes from?
Stuvia is a marketplace, so you are not buying this document from us, but from seller Studycafe. Stuvia facilitates payment to the seller.
Will I be stuck with a subscription?
No, you only buy these notes for CA$26.45. You're not tied to anything after your purchase.
Can Stuvia be trusted?
4.6 stars on Google & Trustpilot (+1000 reviews)
76669 documents were sold in the last 30 days
Founded in 2010, the go-to place to buy study notes for 14 years now