Exam (elaborations)
PCP COPR EXAM (NOCP COPR Practice) – Q’s And A’s
PCP COPR EXAM (NOCP COPR Practice) – Q’s And A’s
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PCP COPR EXAM (NOCP COPR Practice) – Q’s And A’sBasic principle that every person has the right to be free from unwanted
interference or touching, including medical treatment, and no one may
administer such contrary to the person's wish, even if it may be necessary to
preserve that person's life or health.
Consent:
1. It must be voluntary
2. The pt must have legal and mental capacity
3. Must be specific to both the treatment and the person administering it
4. It must be informed
Treatment may be provided w/o pt's consent in an emergency if provider is
not aware of any contrary wish having been expressed by the pt. Correct
Ans - Consent and refusal and its 4 prerequisites
Correct Ans - Implied consent
An event in which the number of patients exceeds the resources available to
the initial responders.
It could be an open (uncontained) or closed (contained) incident. Correct
Ans - Mass-Casualty Incicend MCI
A system implemented to manage disasters and mass-casualty incidents in
which section chiefs, including finance, logistics, operations, and planning,
report to the incident commander. Correct Ans - Incident Command
System (ICS)
The person in charge of the overall incident. They will assess the incident,
establish the strategic objectives and priorities and develop a plan to manage
it. Correct Ans - Incident Commander IC
in incident command, the safety officer monitors the scene for conditions or
operations that may present a hazard to responders and patients. Correct
Ans - Safety Officer
Provides the public and media with clear and understandable information.
Correct Ans - Public Information Officer
,In incident command, the person who relays information, concerns, and
requests among responding agencies. Correct Ans - Liaison Officer
(LNO)
The medical branch of the ICS, group of operations in a unified command
system, whose three designated sector positions are triage, treatment, and
transport. Correct Ans - Medical Incident Command
In charge of counting and prioritizing patients. Ensuring every pt receives an
initial assessment of their condition. Correct Ans - Triage Officer
In incident command, the person responsible for locating, setting up,
requesting supplies and supervising the treatment area Correct Ans -
Treatment Officer
Coordinates the transportation and distribution of patients to appropriate
receiving hospitals. Correct Ans - Transportation Officer
Locates an area to stage equipment and responders, tracks unit arrivals and
sends out vehicles as necessary. Correct Ans - Staging Officer
In incident command, the person who establishes an area that provides
protection for responders from the elements and the situation. Correct
Ans - Rehabilitation Officer
first priority pts, problems with ABCs, head trauma or s/s of shock.
Correct Ans - Immediate (red tag)
will need treatment and transport but it can be delayed, pts usually have
multiple injuries to bones or joints including back injuries with or without
spinal cord injury. Correct Ans - Delayed (yellow tag)
Patients may require no prehospital or minimal treatment. Walking wounded.
Soft tissue injuries, abrasions etc. Correct Ans - Minimal (green tag)
Patients who are dead or that injuries are so severe that they have at best, a
minimal chance of survival. Cardiac arrest or respiratory, major open head
fracture Correct Ans - Expectant (black tag)
,A patient sorting process that stands for Simple Triage And Rapid Treatment
and uses a limited assessment of the patient's ability to walk, respiratory
status, hemodynamic status, and neurologic status. Correct Ans -
START Triage
triage for pediatric patients. Used in children <8 or <45kg. Assess A (patent?)
B (RR 15-45?) C (distal pulse present?) AVPU (appropriate or inappropriate
for age) Correct Ans - JumpSTART
-Hysterical patients should be moved out of disaster site, even if not seriously
injured.
-If a rescuer becomes sick or injured they should be handled as immediate and
be transported off the site asap to avoid negative effect on morale.
-hazardous materials and weapons of mass destruction incidents force the
hazardous material team to identify patients as contaminated or
decontaminated Correct Ans - Triage Special Considerations
Chemical, Biological, Radiological, Nuclear, Explosive incident. unlike
accidental hazardous incidents these are intentional and terrorist in nature.
Chosen due to easy availability, cheap to construct and difficult to detect in
screening. Correct Ans - CBRNE
Usually chosen based on terrorist group motives and for their impact on
people such as government houses, military, transportation facilities or
religious location Correct Ans - What are the common targets for
CBRNE attacks?
-fogs or clouds with an unusual odor
-people displaying unusual behaviors, s/s of unexplained illness
-devices/packages abandoned
-unexplained pools of fluid
-dead animals
-explosion Correct Ans - How to identify a chemical attack?
difficult to identify due to not having an odor, invisible and may take hours or
days to have an effect.
-groups of ppl with flu or food poisoning-like symptoms
-unscheduled spraying in area
, -abandoned spraying devices Correct Ans - How to identify a biological
attach?
-only high levels of it will cause immediate effect
-localized burns with no apparent cause
-groups of individuals w n/v or abnormal blood counts and no noted disease
cause. Correct Ans - How to identify a radiological attack?
Vesicants (blister agents);
Pulmonary Agents (choking agents);
Nerve Agents;
Metabolic Agents (cyanides); Correct Ans - Chemical Agents
Form burn-like blisters on skin and respiratory tract. Cause most damage in
damp parts of the body such as armpits, groin and respiratory tract. Skin is the
primary route of exposure but if left long enough vapors can enter the
respiratory tract.
E.g : Sulfur, Mustard Lewisite and Phosgene Oxime
S/S:
-skin irritations, burning, reddening
-large blisters
-grey discoloration of skin
-swollen or irritated eyes
-permanent eye injury (including blindness)
-if inhaled: hoarseness, cough, stridor, dyspnea, hemoptysis (coughing blood)
Correct Ans - Vesicants (blister agents)
Cause immediate harm, primary route of exposure is respiratory, once in the
lungs, damage occurs to the tissue and fluid enters the lungs. Pulmonary
Edema + SOB develop.
E.g: Chlorine and Phosgene
S/S:
-burning+ tightness in chest
-hoarseness + stridor due to upper airway constriction
-gasping and coughing
-watery eyes and drooling Correct Ans - Pulmonary Agents (choking
agents)
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