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CCP_FPC Exam 2 prep (1)

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CCP_FPC Exam 2 prep (1)

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  • July 16, 2024
  • 34
  • 2023/2024
  • Exam (elaborations)
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lydiaomutho
CCP/FPC Exam 2 prep
NAME THAT DRUG: This organic nitrate is commonly used as an antihypertensive in obstetric
patients.

A) Nitroprusside
B) Fenoldopam
C) Hydralazine
D) Nitroglycerin - ANS-C) Hydralazine

You are transporting a patient with an AMI. Patients vital signs are BP 122/66, HR 112, RR 18,
and SpO2 99% on a NRBM. Which treatment would be most appropriate?

A) Esmolol 50 mcg/kg/min IV
B) Propranolol 10 mg PO
C) Metoprolol 5 mg IV q 5 x 3
D) Labetalol 20 mg IVP - ANS-C) Metoprolol 5 mg IV q 5 x 3

Milrinone (Primacor) is a phosphodiesterase inhibitor. Which of the following statements about
the positive effect of increasing cardiac output with milrinone is TRUE?

A) An increased dromotropic effect (increasing cardiac output) occurs without a chronotropic or
inotropic effect.

B) An increased chronotropic effect (increasing cardiac output) occurs without an inotropic or
dromotropic effect.

C) Answer An increased inotropic effect (increased cardiac output) occurs without a dromotropic
or chronotropic effect.

D) An increased cardiac output occurs by an increased inotropic, dromotropic, and chronotropic
effect. - ANS-C) Answer An increased inotropic effect (increased cardiac output) occurs without
a dromotropic or chronotropic effect.

NAME THAT DRUG: This phosphodiesterase inhibitor is an inodilator that is used in right-sided
heart failure.

A) Isuprel
B) Dobutamine
C) Hydralazine
D) Milrinone - ANS-D) Milrinone

,Which class of drug is ondansetron?

A) Phenothiazine
B) 5-HT3 Serotonin Receptor Antagonist
C) Butyrophenone
D) Dibenzodiazepines - ANS-B) 5-HT3 Serotonin Receptor Antagonist

What type of drug is milrinone?

A) alpha adrenergic agonist
B) beta adrenergic agonist
C) phosphodiesterase inhibitor
D) selective beta blocker - ANS-C) phosphodiesterase inhibitor

NAME THAT DRUG: This naturally occurring hormone causes vasoconstriction through V1
receptors in vascular smooth muscle.

A) Dobutamine
B) Norepinephrine
C) Vasopressin
D) Epinephrine - ANS-C) Vasopressin

NAME THAT DRUG: This L-Type calcium channel blocker is a potent vasodilator that is highly
lipophilic and can be used for days without tachyphylaxis.

A) Nicardipine
B) Clevidipine
C) Diltiazem
D) Fenoldopam - ANS-B) Clevidipine

You are transporting a patient who is 32 week gestation and suddenly becomes hypertensive
with a BP of 158/90. Which would be the most appropriate first line treatment?

A) hydralazine 10-40 mg IV
B) labetalol 40 mg IV
C) esmolol 50 mg/kg/min IV
D) nitroglycerine 10 mcg/min - ANS-A) hydralazine 10-40 mg IV

Which of the following vasodilators does not require invasive BP monitoring?

A) Epoprostenol
B) Sodium nitroprusside
C) Nicardipine
D) Clevidipine - ANS-A) Epoprostenol

,Which of the following blood pressures would you suspect a reduced cardiac output?

A) 140/60
B) 150/120
C) 140/118
D) 160/100 - ANS-C) 140/118

You are treating a symptomatic hypertensive emergency in which the patient has a BP 200/100.
What is your end goal therapy pressure in the first hour?

A) MAP 63
B) MAP 133
C) MAP 107
D) MAP 92 - ANS-C) MAP 107

Which of the following statements about right heart failure is true?

A) Mitral valve regurgitation is commonly associated
B) CVP waveform will have a flat V wave
C) Positive Kussmaul Sign may be observed
D) Lower extremity edema is non-pitting - ANS-C) Positive Kussmaul Sign may be observed

Which of the following about abdominal aortic aneurysm is false?

A) Majority of AAA patients are asymptomatic
B) Pulsating abdominal mass is indicative of a rupture
C) Allow permissive hypotension
D) Answer Majority of AAA rupture patients have a known history - ANS-D) Answer Majority of
AAA rupture patients have a known history

LAD Stenosis - ANS-Wellens syndrome

All of the following is a P2Y12 inhibitor EXCEPT:

A) Eptifibatide
B) Prasugrel
C) Clopidogrel
D) Ticagrelor - ANS-A) Eptifibatide

Debakey type I dissection - ANS-See images

A patient with HFrEF will often have the following associated condition:

, A) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
B) Systolic dysfunction
C) Diastolic dysfunction
D) Restrictive cardiomyopathy - ANS-B) Systolic dysfunction

Which of the following treatments for an aortic dissection is false?

A) Goal SBP is at least <120 mmHg
B) Never give nipride to a post surgical patient
C) An arterial line is rarely required
D) Use metroprolol if patient is tachycardic - ANS-C) An arterial line is rarely required

Which of the following is not an arterial branch of the aortic arch?

A) Left subclavian artery
B) Left common carotif artery
C) Brachiocephalic artery
D) Right common carotid artery - ANS-D) Right common carotid artery

The tip of a central venous line should reside:

A) within any central vein.
B) just outside of the right atrium.
C) in the pulmonary artery.
D) within the right atrium. - ANS-B) just outside of the right atrium.

When transporting a patient with a PAC, the _______ port should always be continuously
pressure-monitored.

A) distal
B) right atrial
C) proximal
D) balloon - ANS-A) distal

Most bloodstream infections in the critically ill patient are attributed to:

A) a lack of hand washing.
B) proximity to other patients.
C) Answer the use of central venous catheters.
D) None of the above. - ANS-C) Answer the use of central venous catheters.

On arrival at a referring intensive care unit (ICU) to transfer a patient with a Swan-Ganz catheter
in place, the CCTP notes that the first visible marking on the catheter is one thick black line with

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