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Week 5 Musculoskeletal Question and answers rated A+
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Week 5 Musculoskeletal Question and answers rated A+ Mickey, age 18, is on a chemotherapeutic antibiotic for a musculoskeletal neoplasm. Which drug do you think he is taking? 1.Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan). 2.Doxorubicin (Adriamycin). 3.Methotrexate (Rheumatrex). 4.Cisplatin (Platinol). - cor...

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  • August 18, 2024
  • 29
  • 2024/2025
  • Exam (elaborations)
  • Questions & answers

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  • week 5 musculoskeletal
  • week 5 musculoskeletal question and answers rated

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Week 5 Musculoskeletal
Mickey, age 18, is on a chemotherapeutic antibiotic for a musculoskeletal
neoplasm. Which drug do you think he is taking?


1.Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan).
2.Doxorubicin (Adriamycin).
3.Methotrexate (Rheumatrex).
4.Cisplatin (Platinol). - correct answer ✔Doxorubicin (Adriamycin).


rationale: The only antineoplastic antibiotic listed is doxorubicin (Adriamycin).
All of the other medications are chemotherapeutic agents of other
classifications that may be used for musculoskeletal neoplasms.


A 13-year-old obese (body mass index [BMI] above the 95th percentile) boy
reports low-grade left knee pain for the past 2 months. He denies antecedent
trauma but admits to frequent "horseplay" with his friends. The pain has
progressively worsened, and he is now unable to bear weight at all on his left
leg. His current complaints include left groin, thigh, and medial knee pain and
tenderness. His examination demonstrates negative drawer, Lachman, and
McMurray tests; left hip with decreased internal rotation and abduction; and
external hip rotation with knee flexion. Based on the above scenario, the
nurse practitioner should suspect:


1.A left meniscal tear.
2.A left anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear.
3.A slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE).
4.Osgood-Schlatter disease. - correct answer ✔A slipped capital femoral
epiphysis (SCFE).

,rationale: SCFE is a displacement of the femoral head relative to the femoral
neck that occurs through the physis (growth plate) of the femur. The vast
majority of clients with this condition are obese, as the added weight
increases shear stress across the physis. The mean age at diagnosis is 12
years for females and 13.5 years for males. Surgery is often required via in
situ pin fixation (single screw) to stabilize the growth plate to prevent further
slippage and avoid complications.


The valgus stress test, varus stress test, Lachman test, and thumb sign are all
considered standard tests to check the integrity of the ligaments of the knee.
Which test would the nurse practitioner choose to assess the anterior cruciate
ligament (ACL), which is the most commonly involved structure in severe knee
injury?


1.Valgus stress test.
2.Varus stress test.
3.Lachman test.
4.Thumb sign. - correct answer ✔Lachman test


rationale: The Lachman test assesses the ACL.


In assessing the skeletal muscles, the nurse practitioner turns the patient's
forearm so that the palm is up. This is called:


1.Supination.
2.Pronation.
3.Abduction.
4.Eversion. - correct answer ✔Supination.


rationale: Turning the forearm so that the palm is up is called supination.

, Lillian, age 70, was told that she has osteoporosis. When she asks you what
this is, you respond that osteoporosis:


1.Develops when loss of bone occurs more rapidly than new bone growth.
2.Is a degenerative joint disease characterized by loss of cartilage in certain
joints.
3.Is a chronic inflammatory disorder that affects multiple joints.
4.Is a bone disorder that has to do with inadequate mineralization of the
bones. - correct answer ✔Develops when loss of bone occurs more rapidly
than new bone growth.


rationale: Osteoporosis develops when bone resorption occurs more rapidly
than bone deposition.


Cass, age 67, tells the nurse practitioner (NP) that she has been diagnosed
with a condition that causes sudden flares of pain, swelling, and redness of
the joints in her toes. She cannot remember the name of the diagnosis, but
she knows it is caused by urate crystals that "get stuck in the joint and cause
pain." She is on hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) for management of her
hypertension. The NP should suspect a diagnosis of:


1.Septic arthritis.
2.Gout.
3.Rheumatoid arthritis.
4.Charcot neuro-osteoarthropathy. - correct answer ✔Gout.


rationale: Gout is a disorder that involves abnormal metabolism of uric acid
and results in hyperuricemia. High concentrations of urate precipitate into
crystals that collect in tissue and joint spaces and can cause pain and

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