Specific defence Study guides, Revision notes & Summaries

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CPR3701 EXAM PACK 2023
  • CPR3701 EXAM PACK 2023

  • Exam (elaborations) • 104 pages • 2023
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  • Green true 1. The notion of “open justice” establishes a protective function in respect of the fair-trial rights of the accused. 2. Open justice can be limited in cases where the accused is in danger of being exposed as a state informant. 3. The accused can testify by way of closed-circuit television in cases where an open trial may cause him or her emotional or physical harm. 4. Witnesses are protected in cases of sexual assault and extortion by way of the court’s discreti...
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CIV3701 EXAM PACK 2022
  • CIV3701 EXAM PACK 2022

  • Exam (elaborations) • 258 pages • 2022
  • CIV3701 EXAM PACK 2022. CIV3701 - Civil Procedure Discuss representation by power of attorney, including when a power of attorney is necessary and why a power of attorney is drawn up. (5) Every natural person who is a party to civil proceedings is entitled to represent himself personally. Such a person would usually instruct an attorney to act on his behalf. These instructions are confirmed and specified in a document known as a power of attorney. A power of attorney is a written docume...
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LEV3701 SUMMARY NOTES LEV3701 SUMMARY NOTES
  • LEV3701 SUMMARY NOTES

  • Exam (elaborations) • 34 pages • 2023
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  • LEV Notes Law of Evidence (University of South Africa) lOMoARcPSD| WITNESSES 2 aspects of oral evidence: 1. COMPETENCE OF WITNESS TO TESTIFY Whether person has mental capacity to testify – if not, they are not competent to testify & court cannot hear their evidence under any circumstances Note the diff btw admissibility and competence: - Admissibility = evidence of a person who is already a competent witness - Competence = focuses on the person Parties cannot consent to admission o...
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IND2601 Assignment 2 (ANSWERS) Semester 1 2024 - DISTINCTION GUARANTEED
  • IND2601 Assignment 2 (ANSWERS) Semester 1 2024 - DISTINCTION GUARANTEED

  • Exam (elaborations) • 95 pages • 2023
  • Well-structured IND2601 Assignment 2 (ANSWERS) Semester 1 2024 - DISTINCTION GUARANTEED. (DETAILED ANSWERS - DISTINCTION GUARANTEED!). ... Question 1 Complete Marked out of 1.00 Question 2 Complete Marked out of 1.00 Question 3 Complete Marked out of 1.00 QUIZ Which of the following statements DOES NOT signify mangangaahla (to move the jaw) in sentencing under customary law? a. The amount of talking that the court offi cials need to do in order to convince a litigant of his gui...
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CQIB Exam 2023 Questions and Answers
  • CQIB Exam 2023 Questions and Answers

  • Exam (elaborations) • 32 pages • 2023
  • Mutually owned co-operative financial institutions offering benefits to members through a trust-like structure" describes which type of Insurer/Fund Manager? - Answer- Friendly Society Which is the decision-making process of framing? - Answer- To remove the 'noise' from an issue to allow us to see the problem for what it is Under the RG271 what is the maximum timeframes for IDR response for a Superannuation trustee complaints? - Answer- 45 days after receiving the complaint In the se...
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2022 OCTOBER EXAM - LAW OF EVIDENCE (LEV3701)
  • 2022 OCTOBER EXAM - LAW OF EVIDENCE (LEV3701)

  • Exam (elaborations) • 13 pages • 2022
  • Question 1 What must the court in a civil case do if a legal question about the cross-examination of a witness arises and there is no express provision in any South African legislation on the specific issue? Fully explain with reference to a definition. [5] Question 2 Lucky is on trial for the murder of his wife. The prosecution claims that Lucky committed the murder by poisoning his wife with arsenic. Lucky’s defence is that his wife committed suicide. Innocent, an attorney, is called by t...
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Mental Health Test Bank QUESTIONS AND 100% CORRECT ANSWERS
  • Mental Health Test Bank QUESTIONS AND 100% CORRECT ANSWERS

  • Exam (elaborations) • 33 pages • 2022
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  • The quantitative study of the distribution of mental disorders in human populations is called which of the following? A. Mortality B. Prevalence C.Epidemiology D.Clinical epidemiology C.Epidemiology Which statement best describes the DSM-5? A.It is a medical psychiatric assessment system. B.It is a compendium of treatment modalities. C.It offers a complete list of nursing diagnoses. D.It suggests common interventions for mental disorders. A.It is a medical psychiatric ...
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LCR4805 Assignment 1 (ANSWERS) Semester 2 2023 - DISTINCTION GUARANTEED LCR4805 Assignment 1 (ANSWERS) Semester 2 2023 - DISTINCTION GUARANTEED
  • LCR4805 Assignment 1 (ANSWERS) Semester 2 2023 - DISTINCTION GUARANTEED

  • Exam (elaborations) • 17 pages • 2022
  • LCR4805 Assignment 1 (ANSWERS) Semester 2 2023 - DISTINCTION GUARANTEED Answers, guidelines, workings and references. ............................................QUEST ION 1 Shortly after a bomb explosion in London, an unknown person posted messages onto a bulletin board falsely implicating that a certain Mr X, who lives in Cape Town, had something to do with the terrorist attack. The bulletin board is hosted by West-World Internet Ltd, an Internet Service Provider registered in South Afri...
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Chemotherapy Biotherapy Certification exam 2022/2023 with 100% correct answers
  • Chemotherapy Biotherapy Certification exam 2022/2023 with 100% correct answers

  • Exam (elaborations) • 19 pages • 2022
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  • Resources LESSON 1: Cell cycle g1- increase in size s- dna replicated g2- cell enlarge and ready to divide m phase- 2 hours mitosis 4 stages, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase -chemo targets certain points in the process apoptosis programmed cell death hematopoiesis formation of blood cells & how cells differentiate -myeloid: pre cells mature into RBCs, platelets and WBCs -lymphoid: pre cells- mature into WBCS Principles of Biotherapy: p51-...
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MRL3701 EXAM PACK 2024 MRL3701 EXAM PACK 2024
  • MRL3701 EXAM PACK 2024

  • Exam (elaborations) • 485 pages • 2023
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  • MRL3701 INSOLVENCY LAW PAST EXAM PACK QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS SUMMARISED NOTES S - The study-notes marketplace MRL 3701 OCTOBER/NOVEMBER 2018 QUESTION 1 a) Inability to pay debts is, at most merely evidence of insolvency. (page 3) b) Brenda’s application for voluntary surrender must be set out the causes of her insolvency in some detail to enable the court to determine whether the application is ......................... c) Christopher commits an act of insolvency by depar...
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