Coombs - Samenvattingen, Notities en Examens
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Immunohematology Final Exam Questions And Solved Answers.
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Which of the following is the most common cause of a false negative antibody screen or ID test? 
a. Forgetting to add AHG 
b. Using AHG that is expired 
c. Inadequate washing 
d. A positive autocontrol - Answer c. Inadequate washing 
 
What are check cells (aka Coombs control cells)? 
a. D positive cells coated with anti-D antibodies 
b. D negative cells coated with anti0D antibodies 
c. Type O, D positive cells coated with AHG 
d. Type O, D negative cells coated with AHG - Answer a. D pos...
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Maternity and Womens Health Care Exam Bundle With Test banks , Study Guides Explained With Questions And Answers Fully solved , Approved For Revision And Study Purposes 2024
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A 40-year-old woman with a body mass index over 30 is 10 weeks pregnant. Which diagnostic tool is appropriate to suggest to her at this time? - correct answer Transvaginal ultrasound

Which clinical significance does a maternal blood Coombs test with a titer of 1:8 and increasing indicate? - correct answer Significant Rh incompatibility

The nurse
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MMSC409 Exam 3 Questions with complete solution
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MMSC409 Exam 3 Questions with complete solution When shipping blood products between distribution center and the transfusion service lab (TSL), RED BLOOD CELLS should be packaged: - correct answer In a cooler with wet (cubed) ice on top of the RBCs 
 
Which phase of compatibility testing is designed to detect ABO incompatibility between patient and donor blood: 
 
Coombs control cells (check cells) reading 
37C reading 
IS (immediate spin) reading 
AGH reading - correct answer IS (immediate ...
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NAPLEX - Lab Values Questions and answers
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Which lab test is used to detect early or mild B12 deficiency? 
Methylmalonate (MMA) 
 
 
 
Patient is on UFH and the control value at this hospital is 22-38 seconds, select the correct test and appropriate treatment level for this patient. 
a) INR, 2-3 
b) aPTT, 18 seconds 
c) INR, 2.5-3.5 
d) aPTT, 44 seconds 
e) Platelets, above 50 
- The aPTT can be used to monitor heparin. 
 
- The treatment goal is to achieve PTT 1.5 - 2 times the control value of the institution 
 
 
 
A patient presents ...
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CPHON EXAM 2023/2024 WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS GRADED A+
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Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia is a group of disorders characterized by correct answersmalfunction of the immune system where antibodies are produced against antigens on the surface of RBSs, resulting in hemolysis 
 
T/F RBC survival is proportional to the amount of antibody on the RBC surface; therefore the greater the amount of antibody the more rapidly the RBC is destroyed. correct answersTrue 
 
Intravascular Hemolysis is - correct answersRBC lysis in circulation - Antibodies bind to the RBC me...
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MAC3701 Assignment 2 Full Solutions Semester 2 2024 - DUE 9 September 2024
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MAC3701 Assessment 2 (COMPLETE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS) Semester 2 2024 - DUE 9 September 2024 ;100 % TRUSTED workings, Expert Solved, Explanations and Solutions. For assistance call or W.h.a.t.s.a.p.p us on ...(.+.2.5.4.7.7.9.5.4.0.1.3.2)........... 
QUESTION 1 (100 Marks; 180 Minutes) 
The Company information below applies to Parts A, B, C, D, and E of assessment 02. The 
additional information provided in each Part only applies to that specific Part of the 
assessment 02. 
For each Part below, ...
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OB final exam & HESI Questions and Answers with Certified Solutions
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OB final exam & HESI Questions and Answers with Certified Solutions 
The nurse should be concerned after the assessment finding on what during a magnesium sulfate infusion for preeclampsia? 
A. a sleepy, sedated effect 
B. a respiratory rate of 10 bpm 
C. DTR of 2+ D. absence of ankle clonus B should alert the nurse for respiratory depression. The other findings are considered normal. 
the most common medical complication of pregnancy hypertension 
preeclampsia results in what decreased function...
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ANCC FNP Board Exam Study Guide Part 2 Exam Questions And Answers
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ANCC FNP Board Exam Study Guide Part 2 Exam Questions And Answers 
 
 
Baby with yellow drainage from eye 
 
-bacterial conjunctivitis 
-gonococcal ophthalmia neonatorum 
-chlamydial ophthalmia neonatorum (trachoma) 
 
 
Pyloric stenosis 
 
-classic presentation - 4-6 week old (first born) male with projectile, nonbilious vomiting; olive-like mass better palpated immediately after vomiting; occurs in 3.5/1000 births 
-diagnosis made by ultrasound 
-differential diagnoses should include - GERD; ...
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NUR 325 Exam 5 Study Questions and Correct Answers
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Normal bilirubin level at 24 hours of age 2-6 mg/dl 
Normal bilirubin level at 48 hours of age 6-7 mg/dl 
physiologic jaundice begins after 24 hours of age, can be due to decreased fluid intake &/or possible dehydration, occurs in about 60% of term & all preterm 
physiological jaundice prevention early & frequent breastfeeding 
physiologic jaundice treament evaluate breastfeeding, pump breast milk, make sure they are getting adequate feeds so they are excreting the bilirubin 
pathologic jaundice...
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Leadership ATI Proctored with Complete Solutions 2024
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Leadership ATI Proctored with Complete 
Solutions 2024 
A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the 
nurse recommend for conference? 
A. A client who is at 28 weeks gestation and has a negative Coombs titer 
B. A client who is 39 weeks of gestation and has a negative contraction stress test 
C. A client who is at 35 weeks of gestation and has a biophysical profile of 6 
D. A client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and has an L/S ratio o...
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