EXAMS BUNDLE

MATH 225N Statistics Week 6 Quiz.Question 1 The population standard deviation for the heights of dogs, in inches, in a city is 3.7 inches. If we want to be 95% confident that the sample mean is within 2 inches of the true population mean, what is the minimum sample size that can be taken? Round u...

PORTAGE LEARNING BIOD 151 MODULE 1 – 7 EXAMS A&P 1.Module 1 1. What is the study of the structure of the human body? A. Anatomy B. Physiology C. Anabolism D. Catabolism E. Metabolism A. Anatomy 2. …......................... is an example of the organ level of organization in the human b...

HESI RN PEDIATRIC EXAM.1. RN is caring for infant scheduled for reduction of intussusceptions. The day before scheduled procedure, infant passes a soft-formed brown stool. Which intervention should RN do? • Instruct the parents that the infant needs to be NPO. • Notify healthcare provider of...

PYC 3703 QUESTIONS TEST BANK (Q&A)1. Which of the following would not be studied by a Cognitive Psychologist? a. whether people can pay attention to multiple stimuli at once without losing accuracy b. if advertising using animation is more memorable than advertising using no animation c. whether ...

HESI OB QUESTIONS BANK (Orange Book)184. The nurse is preparing to teach a prenatal class about fetal circulation. Which statements should be included in the teaching plan? Select all that apply. 1. “The ductus arteriosus allows blood to bypass the fetal lungs.” 2. “One vein carries oxygena...

HESI OB EXAM STUDY GUIDE NEWBORN.Respiratory transition in the newborn Respiratory function • Established when cord is cut. • Air inflates lungs with first breath. • 4 factors influence the initiation of the 1st breath Chemical factors: hypercarbia, acidosis, and hypoxia which stimulate...

HESI OB – MATERNITY V2 EXAM.1. The nurse is caring for a client who had an emergency cesarean section, with her husband in attendance the day before. The baby’s Apgar was 9/9. The woman and her partner had attended childbirth education classes and had anticipated having a water birth with fami...

HESI 0B – MATERNITY V1.1. A 3-day postpartum client, who is not immune to rubella, is to receive the vaccine at discharge. Which of the following must the nurse include in her discharge teaching regarding the vaccine? a) The woman should not become pregnant for at least 4 weeks. b) The woman s...

STATISTICS STA 2023 QUIZ 3.QUESTION 1 Find the indicated probability. A die with 6 sides is rolled. What is the probability of rolling a number less than 5? 4 2/3 1/6 5/6 QUESTION 2 From the information provided, create the sample space of possible outcomes. Two white mice mate. The male h...

NR 601 WEEK 6 QUIZ STUDY GUIDE – DIABETES.ADA screening recommendations: when to screen to repeat screens based on findings Recommendations Screening for type 2 diabetes with an informal assessment of risk factors or validated tools should be considered in asymptomatic adults. B Testing for t...

NR 601 MIDTERM EXAM – STUDY GUIDE WITH Q&A.A client is newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which diagnostic test will best evaluate the management plan prescribed for this client? Quarterly hemoglobin A1C After first managing the pain being experienced by the client with gout, the tr...

NR 602 WOMENS HEALTH STUDY GUIDE – WEEK 5.What are some of the diagnostic tools available to assist in diagnosing abnormal uterine bleeding? (7) History Physical exam Cytologic exam Pelvic U/S Endometrial Biopsy Hysteroscopy Dilatation and Curettage Anovulation - Ovaries do not release an...

NRNP-6640 Midterm Exam.Question 1 During a session, the PMHNP asks a patient with a history of sexual abuse to recall the relationship she had as a child with her parents. The patient responds by saying she has a headache and her stomach hurts, and starts talking about her physical ailments. What...

NSG 6320 AGNP Board Exam – Dermatology Assessment Exam.A reddish blue, irregularly shaped, solid and spongy mass of blood vessels that may be present at birth and enlarge during the first 10 to 15 months is characteristic of a: cavernous hemangioma. Correct strawberry mark. telangiectasia. po...

NSG 6320 AGNP Board Exam – Endocrinology Prescription Exam.1. Question: When patients administer regular insulin (Humulin R U-500), they should be taught: 5 units of Humulin R U-500 is equal to 10 units on a U-100 insulin syringe. 10 units of Humulin R U-500 is equal to 5 units on a U-100 insul...

NSG 6320 AGNP Board Exam – Gastroenterology Assessment Exam.When percussing a protuberant abdomen, tympany is audible. This is consistent with all of the following conditions except: intestinal obstruction. increased intestinal gas production. a large solid tumor. Correct a paralytic ileus. ...

NSG 6320 AGNP Board Exam – Hematology Assessment Exam.1. Question: If a newborn develops a cephalohematoma, the newborn is at an increased risk for: infection. jaundice. Correct caput succedaneum. erythema toxicum. Explanation: Cephalohematomas are characterized by bleeding between the bone...

NSG 6320 AGNP Board Exam – Men’s Health Assessment Exam.1. Question: When palpating the prostate gland during the rectal exam, the prostate feels tender, swollen, “boggy,” and warm. This finding is consistent with: a normal prostate gland. acute bacterial prostatitis. Correct benign pro...

NSG 6320 AGNP Board Exam – Orthopedics Assessment Exam.1. Question: The axioscapular group of muscles include which one of the following? Supraspinatus Trapezius Correct Subscapularis Pectoralis major Explanation: The axioscapular group attaches the trunk to the scapula and includes the tra...

NSG 6320 AGNP Board Exam – Orthopedics Prescribing.1. Question: Which medication is NOT a brand name for acetaminophen? Mapap Cetafen Aleve Correct Feverall Explanation: Brand names for acetaminophen include Mapap, Cetafen, FeverAll and Tylenol. Aleve is the brand name for naproxen sodium....

NSG 6320 AGNP Board Exam – Pediatrics Assessment Exam.1. Question: A child sustained a "full-thickness" burn injury. This type injury involves tissue destruction down to the: epidermis. dermis. subcutaneous tissue. Correct internal organs. Explanation: A full-thickness burn involves all ...

NSG 6320 AGNP Board Exam – Pregnancy Assessment Exam.1. Question: Weight gain should be monitored during pregnancy. For a pregnant woman whose BMI is < 18.5, the total weight gain should be: 11-20 pounds. 15-25 pounds. 25-35 pounds 28-40 pounds. Correct Explanation: Weight gain should b...

NSG 6320 AGNP Board Exam – Psychiatry Assessment Exam.1. Question: A 48-year-old woman states that she began smoking about 10 cigarettes per day at 20 years of age. How should this subjective history be documented? 10 pack year history 14 pack year history Correct 18 pack year history 20 pac...

NSG 6320 AGNP Board Exam – Respiratory Prescribing.1. Question: Treatment of Bordetella pertussis in a patient with a hypersensitivity to macrolides is: doxycycline. clindamycin (Cleocin). metronidazole (Flagyl). sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim (Bactrim). Correct Explanation: Sulfamethoxazole...

NSG 6320 AGNP Board Exam – Sexually Transmitted Diseases Assessment Exam.1. Question: Which is NOT a type of diagnostic test for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)? Antibody test Combination antibody and antigen test Cluster of differentiation 4 (CD4) Correct Nucleic acid tests (NATs) Expla...

NSG 6320 AGNP Board Exam – Urology Assessment Exam.1. Question: In renal adaptation of the newborn, which one of the following statements is correct? The kidneys have an inability to concentrate urine and adapt to fluid and electrolyte stress. Correct In the nephrons of the kidneys long tubule...

NSG 6320 AGNP Board Exam – Women’s Health Assessment Exam.1. Question: A woman complains of infrequent menses with intervals greater than 35 days. This condition is termed: oligomenorrhea. Correct polymenorrhea. metrorrhagia. menorrhagia. Explanation: Oligomenorrhea is infrequent bleedin...

NSG 6320 AGNP Board Exam – Women’s Health Prescription Exam.1. Question: Which of the following is NOT a common side effect associated with the use of etonogestrel/ethinyl estradiol (NuvaRing), a contraceptive vaginal ring? Vaginitis Breast tenderness Increased appetite Severe headache Cor...

NSG6006 PREDICTOR EXAM.1. Once a practice problem has been identified the next step would be to use the PICOT format to ask a question about the problem PICOT stands for  P population I intervention C concepts O operational definitions T time  P precision instrument , I intervention , C con...

NUR 265 EXAM 1 STUDY GUIDE & EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS.• Nephrotic Syndrome: o NS is a condition of increased glomerular permeability that allows larger molecules to pass through the membrane into the urine and then be excreted. o Immunological Kidney disorder o This causes massive loss of p...

NUR 265 Exam 2 Study Guide & Exams Questions and Answers.Lungs Physiology  2 Pleural, 1 attached to outside of lungs and 1 attached to inside of ribs. ● Space between the 2 pleural is negative to atmosphere ● When inhale becomes more positive and atmosphere more negative. Exhaling is pass...

NUR 265 Exam 3 Study Guide & Exam Questions and Answers.Increased ICP (939-940, chart 941) • Normal ICP 10-15 mmHg, pressures >20 mmHg impair cerebral circulation • IICP is leading cause of death from head trauma in pts who reach the hospital alive. • Cerebral Perfusion Pressure (CPP) o...

NUR 265 Exam 4 Full Study Guide.Labs • Hbg 12-18 • Hct 37-52% • WBC 5-10 • RBC 4.2-6.1 • PLT 150-400 • PT 11-12.5 sec (1.5-2.5x normal on Coumadin = 16.5-31.25 sec) • INR 0.9-1.2 sec (Therapeutic level 2-3x normal = 1.8-3.6 sec) • PTT 60-70 sec (1.5-2.5x normal on Heparin = 9...

NUR 631 Week 8 Midterm Exam (Rated 100%)1. What is an example of compensatory hyperplasia a. Liver (Regeneration) 2. What causes the rapid change in the resting membrane potential to initiate and action potential. a. Sodium gates open, sodium rushes into the cell, changing the membrane potential ...

NUR 1023 FINAL EXAM – SEVERAL COMBINED.1. Which surgical procedure should the nurse anticipate the client with myasthenia gravis undergoing to help prevent the signs/symptoms of the disease process? A thymectomy. 2. Which ocular or facial signs/symptoms should the nurse expect to assess for t...

NUR 2212 BIOTERRORISM EXAM.A client is admitted with dysphasia, dry mouth, drooping eyelids, blurred vision, vomiting, and diarrhea, and within 24 hours develops bilateral cranial nerve impairment and descending weakness. Which bioterrorism agent results in these clinical manifestations? 1 Plagu...

NURS 403 COMMUNITY FINAL EXAM.1.A nurse is establishing health promotion goals for a female client who smokes cigarettes, has hypertension, and has a BMI of 26. Which of the following goals should the nurse include? The client will walk for 30 min 5 days a week 2. A public health nurse is assessi...

NURS 406 ASSESSMENT LEADERSHIP AND COMMUNITY HEALTH EXAM.A nurse is completing an assessment of a recently widowed older adult client. He states he is unable to drive and is afraid to cook on the stove. Which of the following community resources should the nurse recommend? Hospice care Meals on ...

NURS 1102 ADOLESCENTS EAQ.An adolescent who has had a leg amputated because of bone cancer begins to experience phantom limb sensations. How should the nurse respond when the client complains of pain and requests medication? By withholding the medication to help prevent addiction By stating that...

NURS 5366 MODULE 1 QUIZ. Question 1 Hospital nurses are observed in order to determine exactly how long nurses swab IV ports with alcohol. Because they are being observed, they “scrub the hub” longer than they ordinarily would have. This is an example of what threat to validity of the the st...

NURS 5366 MODULE 3 QUIZ Questions and Answers.• Question 1 An outpatient being treated in the infusion center for thalassemia is asked to fill out a form about satisfaction with the center, while he waits for his appointment. The form consists of five questions, each a statement, with six poss...

NURS 6501 FINAL EXAM.An aide asks the nurse why people who have neurofibromatosis will show varying degrees of the disease. Which genetic principle should the nurse explain to the aide? Selected Answer: b. Expressivity Correct Answer: b. Expressivity Why is potassium able to diffuse easily in ...

NURS 6501 FINAL EXAM AUGUST.Question 1 A woman diagnosed with trichomoniasis asks if her sexual partner should be treated as well. What is the appropriate response by the healthcare professional? Selected Answer: Sexual partners should be treated even if they are asymptomatic. • Question 2 ...

NURS 6501 Midterm Exam (Week 6)• Question 1 The action of platelet-derived growth factor is to stimulate the production of which cells? Selected Answer: Platelets • Question 2 • 1 out of 1 points A healthcare professional is educating a patient about asthma. The professional states that...

NURS 6501 MIDTERM EXAM REVIEW.1. A patient has a history of excessive use of magnesium-containing antacids and aluminum-containing antacids. What lab value does the healthcare professional correlate to this behavior? Answer: B a. Magnesium 1.8 mg/dL b. Phosphate 1.9 mg/dL c. Sodium 149 mEq/L ...

NURS 6501 MIDTERM EXAM STUDY GUIDE, WEEK 1-6.Cellular Processes and the Genetic Environment • Describe cellular processes and alterations within cellular processes The eight specialized cellular functions are movement, conductivity, metabolic absorption, secretion, excretion, respiration, rep...

NURS 6501 WEEK 1 QUIZ.When completing this quiz, did you comply with Walden University’s Code of Conduct including the expectations for academic integrity? Selected Answer: Yes Correct Answer: Yes The student is reviewing functions of the cell. The student would be correct in identifying th...

NURS 6501 WEEK 2 QUIZ.• Question 1 1 out of 1 points A patient presents with poison ivy on the extremities, face, and buttocks. This condition is an example of: Selected Answer: c. Delayed hypersensitivity Correct Answer: c. Delayed hypersensitivity • Question 2 1 out of 1 points A 50-...

NURS 6501 WEEK 7 QUIZ.• Question 1 A hematologist is discussing hematopoiesis. Which information should be included? participate in hematopoiesis. Correct Answer: a. Colony-stimulating factors (CSFs) • Question 2 A group of cells isolated in the laboratory have membrane-bound granules in th...

NURS 6501 WEEK 8 QUIZ.• Question 1 A 55-year-old female has general symptoms of gallstones but is also jaundiced. IV cholangiography would most likely reveal that the gallstones are obstructing the: Selected Answer: c. Cystic duct Correct Answer: c. Cystic duct • Question 2 A 16-year-old f...

NURS 6501N FINAL EXAM 1.Question 1 A woman diagnosed with trichomoniasis asks if her sexual partner should be treated as well. What is the appropriate response by the healthcare professional? Selected Answer: Question 2 Sexual partners should be treated even if they are asymptomatic. 1 out o...

NURS 6501N FINAL EXAM 2 – AUGUST.Question 1 1 out of 1 points A child with acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis is voiding smoky, brown-colored urine and asks the healthcare professional to explain what causes it. What explanation by the professional is best? Selected Answer: Presence...

NURS 6501N FINAL EXAM 3 – OCTOBER .Question 1 ● 1 out of 1 points Which cells function to maintain bone matrix? Selected Answer: Osteocytes ● Question 2 ● 1 out of 1 points Prenatal exposure to diethylstilbestrol (DES) can result in which type of cancer? Selected Answer: Vaginal can...

NURS 6512 Final Exam (Sample 2 Questions and Answers)Question 2 Breath sounds normally heard over the trachea are called: 1 out of 1 points Selected Answer: bronchial. • Question 3 1 out of 1 points A 23-year-old white woman has come to the clinic because she has missed two menstrual period...

NURS 6512 FINAL EXAM REVIEW.• Question 2 1 out of 1 points The family history for a patient with joint pain should include information about siblings with: Selected Answer: genetic disorders. • Question 4 1 out of 1 points In the adult, the apical impulse should be most visible when the pa...

NURS 6512 Midterm Exam Review Week 1 to 6.1. Communication techniques used to obtain a patient’s health history Courtesy, Comfort, Connection, Confirmation (i.e. knock on door before entering, learn their names, ensure confidentiality, ensure good lighting & temperature, don't overtire patien...

NURS 6521 MIDTERM EXAM JULY. Question 1 A physician has ordered subcutaneous injections of morphine, a narcotic, every 4 hours as needed for pain for a motor vehicle accident victim. The nurse is aware that there is a high abuse potential for this drug and that it is categorized as a Selected...

NURS 6521N MIDTERM EXAM WITH ANSWERS (100/100 POINTS)A patient with bronchial asthma is prescribed a sustained-release preparation of theophylline. To help minimize the adverse effects of the drug, which of the following should the nurse suggest? Selected Answer: Take it on an empty stomach, 1 hou...

NURS 6521N Midterm Questions and Answers.Question 1 1 out of 1 points Correct A 77-year-old man's chronic heart failure is being treated with a regimen of quinapril (Accupril) and furosemide (Lasix). Which of the following assessment findings would suggest that the loop diuretic is contributing ...

NURS 6521N, ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY FINAL TEST EXAM.Question 1 1 out of 1 points The nurse practitioner orders Amoxicillin 500 mg tid? What is the total amount of medication patient will take per day? Selected Answer: 1500 mg • Question 2 1 out of 1 points A 72-year-old patient is prescribed o...

NURS 6531 MIDTERM EXAMS Questions and answers.Question 1 0 out of 0 points When completing this quiz, did you comply with Walden University’s Code of Conduct including the expectations for academic integrity? Selected Answer: Ye s Answers: Ye s No • Question 2 The most common cancer fou...

NURS 6531 Quiz Questions and Answers.The most common cancer found on the auricle is: Basal Cell Carcinoma Which of the following Antihistamines medication classes should be avoided in patients with acute or chronic bronchitis because it will contribute to ventilation-perfusion mismatch in...

NURS 6531N Final Exam Part One(Question and Answers)1. Your patient has an elevated mean cell volume (MCV). What should you be considering in terms of diagnosis? Answer macrocytic anemia 2. A patient presenting for an annual physical exam has a BMI of 25 kg/m2 This patient would be classified as: ...

NURS 6540: Women’s Health. FINAL EXAM. QUESTIONS & ANSWERS.Question 1 2 out of 2 points How does women’s anatomy make them more susceptible to UTIs? Answer: D. Their urethras are shorter. Question 2 2 out of 2 points The primary endocrine disorders affecting women are diabetes mellitus and:...

NURS 6541, FINAL EXAM (ORIGINAL TEST) Questions and Answers.• Question 1 When completing this quiz, did you comply with Walden University’s Code of Conduct including the expectations for academic integrity? Selected Answer: Yes • Question 2 1out of 1 points Antibiotic therapy is one of t...

NURS 6541D-NURS 6541N-NURS 6541C PRIMARY CARE ADOLESCENT & CHILD MIDTERM EXAM 4.Tammy, age 3, is at the office for her well-child visit. She has trouble removing her own shirt as requested. Her mother yanks off her shirt after smacking her wrist and saying, "you must do as you're told quickly." W...

NURS 6541N FINAL EXAM 2 – QUESTION AND ANSWERS (100 questions and answers)Question 1 1 out of 1 points A small-for-gestational-age, dysmorphic newborn infant has microcephaly and sloping forehead, cutis aplasia (missing portion of the skin and hair) of the scalp, polydactyly, microphthalmia, and...

NURS 6541N FINAL EXA M 3 QUESTION AND ANSWERS.Question 1 1 out of 1 points An 11-year-old has been diagnosed with mild intermittent asthma. Which of the following is not a routine part of the clinical management? Selected Answer: c. School excuse to not participate in recess and/or physical educ...

NURS 6550 Acute Care Study Guide for Midterm Exams.Psychosocial WEEK 2 Papadakis, M. A., McPhee, S. J., & Rabow, M. W. (2018). Current medical diagnosis & treatment (57th ed.). New York, NY: McGraw Hill. Chapter 25, “Psychiatric Disorders” (pp. 1059-1116) • Evaluate patients with psychosoci...

NURS 6550 FINAL EXAM 1 – QUESTION AND ANSWERS.QUESTION 1 1. Mr. Jeffers was admitted 2 days ago for a carotid endarterectomy. A Foley catheter was inserted intraoperatively and remains in place. His urine output has declined markedly despite continued IV fluid infusion. Today his morning labs rev...

NURS 6550 MIDTERM EXAM 100 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS.Question 1 1 out of 1 points The AGACNP is caring for a patient who is quite ill and has developed, among other things, a large right sided pleural effusion. Thoracentesis is sent for pleural fluid analysis. While evaluating the fluid analysis, the ...

NURS 6552 WOMENS HEALTH MIDTERM (Exam Elaborations Questions & Answers) Serum FSH indirectly measures ovarian function, with levels of FSH indicating normally functioning ovaries. ...

NURS 6630 FINAL EXAM (2 VERSIONS, NURS 6630C – NURS 6630N) 63 Questions and Answers.1. 1 out of 1 points A 75-year-old male patient diagnosed with Alzheimer’s disease presents with agitation and aggressive behavior. The PMHNP determines which of the following to be the best treatment option? S...

NURS 6650 FINAL EXAM SET 4 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS.• Question 1 When completing this exam, did you comply with Walden University’s Code of Conduct including the expectations for academic integrity? Selected Ye Answer: s • Question 2 One member of a therapy group had been quiet for the firs...

NURS 6650 Midterm Exam Latest Verified, 75/75 Q&A.• Question 1 1 out of 1 points While in a family therapy session, a wife comments, “Instead of spending time with me, he is usually watching sports on television.” Using an emotionally focused family therapy approach, what is an appropriate...

NURS 6660 Final Exam Latest 2021, Questions and Answers.Question:1 Which of the following is a true statement with respect to crisis intervention and psychological debriefing as a preventive strategy for post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)? A. Crisis intervention and psychologic debriefing is mo...

NURS 6660 FINAL EXAMS QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS.1 The PMHNP is evaluating a 15-year-old male patient who has been referred by his courtappointed guardian. He has been in foster care for the last 6 years and maintained a steady pattern of low-level behavior problems such as skipping school and ignorin...

NURS 6670 / NURS 6670N FINAL EXAM. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS WITH EXPLANATIONS.Question1. Collette is a 23-year-old female who presented for emergency care with her mother because her behavior has become increasingly erratic and caused her to lose her job. Her mother reports that she had never done ...

NURS 6512 FINAL EXAM.1. Costovertebral angle tenderness should be assessed whenever you suspect the patient may have: - Polynephritis 2. In older adults, overflow fecal incontinence is commonly due to: -Fecal impaction 3. A 1 month old boy has been vomiting for 2 weeks. How is this symptom of GER...

NURS 6521N ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY FINAL EXAM.A pregnant patient asks the Nurse Practitioner what over-the-counter medication she can take for recurring headaches. The nurse should recommend Selected Answer: tylenol. A Nurse Practitioner working in a cancer center is preparing to administer medicat...

NURS 6630 Approaches To Treatment Of Psychopathology MIDTERM EXAM.• Question 1 1 out of 1 point When an unstable patient asks why it is necessary to add medications to his current regimen, the PMHNP’s best response would be: Selected C. Answer: “Many psychiatric illnesses involve several...

NURS 6660 Final Exam Latest 2021, Questions and Answers.Question:1 Which of the following is a true statement with respect to crisis intervention and psychological debriefing as a preventive strategy for post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)? A. Crisis intervention and psychologic debriefing is mo...

NURS 6670 Final Exam Study Guide Chapter 1 to 39; Graded.NURS 6670 Final Exam Study Guide Chapter 1 to 39 NURS 6670 Final Exam - PMH Nurse Practitioner Role 11 Case Study, Mohr: CHAPTER 1, Introduction to Psychiatric–Mental Health Nursing 1. Karen is a 25- year-old white woman who lives alone in ...

NURS-6630C-7/NURS-6630N-7-Approaches to Treatment2019 Week 6 Midterm Exam.During assessment a patient states “Why are you asking me about my heart, I am here for my head”, the PMHNP’s best response is: Selected Answer: D. “Anxiety can cause cortisol levels to increase and when this happen...

TEST BANK for NURSING INFORMATICS AND THE FOUNDATION OF KNOWLEDGE 4TH EDITION MCGONIGLE.The nurse understands that nursing informatics is recognized as a specialty area of practice by which statement? 1. Research priorities for nursing informatics include the development of a standard nursing lan...

NURSING NOW 8TH EDITION CATALANO TEST BANK.Chapter 1: The Growth of Nursing Questions 1. Nurses are often the primary, and frequently the only, defendants named when errors are made that result in injury to the client. This is due to which concept associated with the nursing profession? 1. Autono...

PATHOPHYSIOLOGY FINAL EXAM 2.1. Select all that apply. Excessive immune responses are shown in which of the conditions below. a. RA b. small pox c. arthritis d. allergies Answer: RA, arthritis, allergies 2. ALS causes patients to be paralyzed: a. on their side b. b head down c. on their ...

Pathophysiology Proctored Final Exam.1. Activation of the classical pathway begins with: a. Viruses c. Mast cells b. Antigen-antibody complexes d. Macrophages 2. The chemotactic factor affects the inflammatory process by: a. Causing vasodilation around the inflamed area b. Stimulating smooth mu...

Test Bank for Pediatric Nursing – A Case-Based Approach 1st Edition Tagher Knapp.Chapter 1: Bronchiolitis 1. Which intervention is appropriate for the infant hospitalized with bronchiolitis? a. Position on the side with neck slightly flexed. b. Administer antibiotics as ordered. c. Restrict or...

Pediatric Primary Care 6th Edition Burns, Dunn, Brady Test Bank.1. A child who has attentiondeficit/ hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) has difficulty ID: 34 stopping activities to begin other activities at school. The primary care pediatric nurse practitioner understands that this is due to difficul...

PN HESI EXIT EXAM 2021 TEST BANK.1. A male client admitted the morning of his scheduled surgery tells the PN that he drank water last night. What intervention will the PN implement first? Determine the amount of water and exact time it was taken 2. A client receives ondansetron prior to chemother...

PN2 EXAM 1 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS.4. A client has a tracheostomy tube in place. When the nurse suctions the client, food particles are noted. What action by the nurse is best? b. Measure and compare cuff pressures. ANS: B 2. A nurse assesses a client after an open lung biopsy. Which assessment f...

PN2 EXAM 2 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS & STUDY GUIDE.Risk factors for the development of pneumonia include which of the following? • advanced age and immobility Which of these presenting complaints is associated with the client who has pneumonia? • a high fever with sudden onset Which tests confir...

PN2 EXAM 2 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS & STUDY GUIDE.Know what the secondary stage of the inflammatory response is A client has a leg wound that is in the second stage of the inflammatory response. For what manifestation does the nurse assess? a. Noticeable rubor b. Purulent drainage c. Swelling and ...

PN2 EXAM 3 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS.Know what the left temporal lobe of brain affects as far as the senses 1. 1. A nurse prepares to teach a client who has experienced damage to the left temporal lobe of the brain. Which action should the nurse take when providing education about newly prescribed me...

PN3 EXAM 1 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS.1. Which assessment data would prohibit the use of imagery with a client? 1. No previous history of using imagery techniques 2. States anxiety level of 6 on a 0–10 scale 3. Client feels reluctant to close eyes for the imagery session 4. Client has a history of...

PN3 EXAM 2 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS.1. A nurse is evaluating levels and functions of trauma centers. Which function is appropriately paired with the level of the trauma center? a. Level I-located within remote areas and provides advanced life support with resource capabilities b. Level II- located ...