Pneumoniae - Study guides, Class notes & Summaries

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NSG533 / NSG 533 Exam 2 (Latest 2024 / 2025 Update): Advanced Pharmacology | Complete Guide with Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Correct - Wilkes Popular
  • NSG533 / NSG 533 Exam 2 (Latest 2024 / 2025 Update): Advanced Pharmacology | Complete Guide with Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Correct - Wilkes

  • Exam (elaborations) • 20 pages • 2024
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  • Exam 2: NSG533 / NSG 533 (Latest 2024 / 2025 Update) Advanced Pharmacology Exam Review | Complete Guide with Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Correct - Wilkes Q: How does Tramadol work? Answer: It is a centrally acting synthetic opioid with weak SSRI/SNRI activity. Q: What are the daily dose limits for Tramadol? Answer: Maximum of 200mg per day. Q: What are the potential interactions of Tramadol? Answer: Increased risk of seizures with TCAs and other SSRIs, risk for serotonin syndrome. Q: W...
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APEA 3P QBank Practice Test Set 2 Updated for 2023/2024| Best Revision Material Popular
  • APEA 3P QBank Practice Test Set 2 Updated for 2023/2024| Best Revision Material

  • Exam (elaborations) • 17 pages • 2023 Popular
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  • ***Download Test Bank Immediately After the Purchase. Just in case you have trouble downloading, kindly message me, and I will send it to you via Google Doc or email. Thank you*** The Test Bank for APEA 3P Exam is a comprehensive study tool designed to help students excel in their Advanced Practice Education Associates (APEA) 3P exams. This invaluable resource features APEA 3P Test Bank Questions and Answers that cover a wide range of topics, providing a thorough understanding of the subject ma...
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Final Exam: PRN1409/ PRN 1409 (Latest 2024/ 2025 Update) Client-Centered Care III Review| Questions and Verified Answers| 100% Correct| Grade A- Rasmussen
  • Final Exam: PRN1409/ PRN 1409 (Latest 2024/ 2025 Update) Client-Centered Care III Review| Questions and Verified Answers| 100% Correct| Grade A- Rasmussen

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  • Final Exam: PRN1409/ PRN 1409 (Latest 2024/ 2025 Update) Client-Centered Care III Review| Questions and Verified Answers| 100% Correct| Grade A- Rasmussen Q: peritoneal dialysis-location abdomen cavity (peritoneum) Q: what is a major risk in patients with peritoneal dialysis? Answer: major risk of peritonitis due to the risk of pathogens entering the abdominal dialysis catheter Q: what is the normal BUN range Answer: 10-20 mg/dL (cook buns for 10-20 min) ...
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Nurs 629 Exam 3 (Maryville) Questions and Answers 100% Pass
  • Nurs 629 Exam 3 (Maryville) Questions and Answers 100% Pass

  • Exam (elaborations) • 39 pages • 2023
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  • Nurs 629 Exam 3 (Maryville) Questions and Answers 100% Pass Otitis media pathogens Caused by: S. Pneumoniae (most common); H. Influenzae, M. Catarrhils Otitis media Symptoms: Fever, Pain, discharge from ear, tugging at ear, irritability, crying, lethargy, decreased appetite, decreased sleep, Recent URI Objective findings in otitis media Red, bulging OM; Retracted with pus; no movement of TM, Inability to see landmarks; occasional hole in TM Treatment for AOM + Conjunctivitis d/t : H. Influenz...
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NURS 620 Adult 1 EXAM 1 Graded A+ 2023/2024
  • NURS 620 Adult 1 EXAM 1 Graded A+ 2023/2024

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  • Maryville NURS 620 Adult 1 EXAM 1 Common causative organisms of acute bacterial conjunctivitis include all of the following except what? A. Haemophilus influenzae B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Streptococcus pneumoniae - ANSWER B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa What is the easiest way to differentiate between otitis externa and otitis media? A. With otitis media, there is usually tenderness on palpation over the...
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MCB 2010 Exam 4 Study Guide | 100% Passed
  • MCB 2010 Exam 4 Study Guide | 100% Passed

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  • MCB 2010 Exam 4 Study Guide | 100% Passed All of the following are true regarding African trypanosomiasis EXCEPT A) it is also known as "sleeping sickness." B) all subspecies of Trypanosoma brucei have multiple hosts. C) it is transmitted by the tsetse fly. D) death ultimately occurs without proper treatment. E) Trypanosoma brucei gambiense is the more common cause of disease. -Answer-B) all subspecies of Trypanosoma brucei have multiple hosts. Bacterial encephalitis and meningitis are...
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APEA 2023/2024 Practice Test Set 2 (Question Bank Updated April 2023) (Best Revision Material) questions and Accurate Answers
  • APEA 2023/2024 Practice Test Set 2 (Question Bank Updated April 2023) (Best Revision Material) questions and Accurate Answers

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  • APEA 2023/2024 Practice Test Set 2 (Question Bank Updated April 2023) (Best Revision Material) questions and Accurate Answers What is the treatment of choice for community acquired, uncomplicated pneumonia? ---- ----- Correct Answer ------- amoxicillin Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia is a type of ____________ anemia. --------- Correct Answer ------- pernicious; macrocytic Prostate infection or inflammation can cause a sharp rise in PSA values. When should this value go back down to normal ...
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Streptococcus Pneumoniae 2024-2025 with 100- correct answers (latest update).
  • Streptococcus Pneumoniae 2024-2025 with 100- correct answers (latest update).

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  • Streptococcus Pneumoniae with 100- correct answers (latest update).
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NR 566 Midterm Study Guide Questions with Correct Answers.
  • NR 566 Midterm Study Guide Questions with Correct Answers.

  • Exam (elaborations) • 7 pages • 2023
  • Common CAP pathogens Correct Answer S. Pneumoniae (most common) H. Influenzae (smokers/COPD) P. Aeruginosa (CF) CAP first line treatment Correct Answer Macrolides, Doxycyline, Amoxicillin what to give if 1st CAP treatment doesn't work? Correct Answer Respiratory Fluoroquinolone if not received abx in the past 3 months Mycoplasma pneumoniae Correct Answer atypical pneumonia; commonly seen in children pediatric atypical pneumonia treatment Correct Answer Macrolides (Erythromycin), i...
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NURS 5334 - FINAL EXAM STUDY GUIDE.
  • NURS 5334 - FINAL EXAM STUDY GUIDE.

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  • NURS 5334 - FINAL EXAM STUDY GUIDE. Final Exam Blueprint Prescribing Basics: 2 questions Prescriptive authority regulated by the state BON in each state. Tall man lettering to highlight dissimilaries with look-alike names *Prescription contains… Physicians Name, Address, and telephone number are required to be included in the prescription. DEA number (two letters, five numbers) if the prescription is for controlled substance, Patient name and DOB (also may include address and wei...
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