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CARN test practice questions and answers 2025
_____________ is a phenomenon whereby perior intermittent (rather than continuous) exposure to the drug results in an enhanced response to later exposure - Correct Ans-Sensitization ________________ withdrawal symptoms include increased appetite, decreased heart rate, insomnia and depressed mood. - Correct Ans-Nicotine __________ is a medication used to treat alcohol and opioid dependence decrease dependence by decreasing physiological response to alcohol and opioids. - Correct Ans-Naltrex...
- Exam (elaborations)
- • 5 pages •
_____________ is a phenomenon whereby perior intermittent (rather than continuous) exposure to the drug results in an enhanced response to later exposure - Correct Ans-Sensitization ________________ withdrawal symptoms include increased appetite, decreased heart rate, insomnia and depressed mood. - Correct Ans-Nicotine __________ is a medication used to treat alcohol and opioid dependence decrease dependence by decreasing physiological response to alcohol and opioids. - Correct Ans-Naltrex...
CARN-AP 2nd Exam Study Guide Questions and Answers with Verified Solutions 2025
Babies born to mothers who use opioids may need treatment with what? ________ can be used adjunctively to treat withdrawal seizures. - Correct Ans-morphine or methadone Phenobarbital Which Neonatal withdrawal syndromes may present weeks after birth? Name the drug. - Correct Ans-Methadone _________ is a safe and effective second-line treatment of symptoms refractory to opioid therapy in newborns - Correct Ans-Clonidine The patient must first be detoxified from opioid dependence befo...
- Exam (elaborations)
- • 21 pages •
Babies born to mothers who use opioids may need treatment with what? ________ can be used adjunctively to treat withdrawal seizures. - Correct Ans-morphine or methadone Phenobarbital Which Neonatal withdrawal syndromes may present weeks after birth? Name the drug. - Correct Ans-Methadone _________ is a safe and effective second-line treatment of symptoms refractory to opioid therapy in newborns - Correct Ans-Clonidine The patient must first be detoxified from opioid dependence befo...
CARN test practice questions and answers 2025
Anesthesiologists are most likely to abuse this drug - Correct Ans-Fentanyl _____________ is a phenomenon whereby perior intermittent (rather than continuous) exposure to the drug results in an enhanced response to later exposure - Correct Ans-Sensitization ________________ withdrawal symptoms include increased appetite, decreased heart rate, insomnia and depressed mood. - Correct Ans-Nicotine __________ is a medication used to treat alcohol and opioid dependence decrease dependence by ...
- Exam (elaborations)
- • 10 pages •
Anesthesiologists are most likely to abuse this drug - Correct Ans-Fentanyl _____________ is a phenomenon whereby perior intermittent (rather than continuous) exposure to the drug results in an enhanced response to later exposure - Correct Ans-Sensitization ________________ withdrawal symptoms include increased appetite, decreased heart rate, insomnia and depressed mood. - Correct Ans-Nicotine __________ is a medication used to treat alcohol and opioid dependence decrease dependence by ...
Periop 101 final exam 2025
Damp dusting of horizontal surfaces in the OR suite should be performed: a) Before every single procedure set up b) Beginning with the highest surfaces and moving to the lowest c) Using a disposable cloth moistened with isopropyl alcohol d) When the OR suite has been vacant for 24 hrs - Correct Ans-b) Beginning with the highest surfaces and moving to the lowest Which of the following is associated with increased risk for perioperative hypothermia? a) Female Sex b) Higher than normal ...
- Exam (elaborations)
- • 9 pages •
Damp dusting of horizontal surfaces in the OR suite should be performed: a) Before every single procedure set up b) Beginning with the highest surfaces and moving to the lowest c) Using a disposable cloth moistened with isopropyl alcohol d) When the OR suite has been vacant for 24 hrs - Correct Ans-b) Beginning with the highest surfaces and moving to the lowest Which of the following is associated with increased risk for perioperative hypothermia? a) Female Sex b) Higher than normal ...
AORN Periop 101 Final pt 2 Exam Questions with Correct Answers 2025
There are three types of wound healing. Choose the option that describes secondary intention. A. The wound is approximated with no wound separation. B. The wound is cleaned, debriefed and packed. C. The wound is vascularized. D. Delayed healing may result in weak tissue approximation and herniation - Correct Ans-D. Delayed healing may result in weak tissue approximation and herniation An example of a simple drain is - Correct Ans-Penrose drain Which statement is an accurate description...
- Exam (elaborations)
- • 18 pages •
There are three types of wound healing. Choose the option that describes secondary intention. A. The wound is approximated with no wound separation. B. The wound is cleaned, debriefed and packed. C. The wound is vascularized. D. Delayed healing may result in weak tissue approximation and herniation - Correct Ans-D. Delayed healing may result in weak tissue approximation and herniation An example of a simple drain is - Correct Ans-Penrose drain Which statement is an accurate description...
AORN Periop 101 Final Exam Study Guide 2025 GRADED A
1.This type of needle point is what you would expect to be needed for suturing friable tissue such as the liver. - Correct Ans-What is a Blunt needle point? 2.These particular wound closing items are available in a wide variety of instrument sizes. - Correct Ans-What are disposable stapler sets? 3.Give one example from TJC list of Do-Not-Use Abbreviations, Acronyms, and Symbols. - Correct Ans-What is cc? 5.The surgical wound classification for a total abdominal hysterectomy. - Correct A...
- Exam (elaborations)
- • 13 pages •
1.This type of needle point is what you would expect to be needed for suturing friable tissue such as the liver. - Correct Ans-What is a Blunt needle point? 2.These particular wound closing items are available in a wide variety of instrument sizes. - Correct Ans-What are disposable stapler sets? 3.Give one example from TJC list of Do-Not-Use Abbreviations, Acronyms, and Symbols. - Correct Ans-What is cc? 5.The surgical wound classification for a total abdominal hysterectomy. - Correct A...
AORN Periop 101 Final Exam Study Guide Questions and Answers 2025
1. tissue e - Correct Ans-two basic types of scissors heavy - Correct Ans-curved mayo scissors are used for dissection of _________ tissues. Metzenbaum - Correct Ans-__________ scissors are used for dissection of delicate tissues. straight - Correct Ans-__________ scissors are used for cutting sutures. osteotomes - Correct Ans-bone cutting instruments used for shaping or marking bone chisels - Correct Ans-used to sculpt bone and have one beveled edge saw - Correct Ans-any notc...
- Exam (elaborations)
- • 9 pages •
1. tissue e - Correct Ans-two basic types of scissors heavy - Correct Ans-curved mayo scissors are used for dissection of _________ tissues. Metzenbaum - Correct Ans-__________ scissors are used for dissection of delicate tissues. straight - Correct Ans-__________ scissors are used for cutting sutures. osteotomes - Correct Ans-bone cutting instruments used for shaping or marking bone chisels - Correct Ans-used to sculpt bone and have one beveled edge saw - Correct Ans-any notc...
NURS 5315 FINAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 2025
Anion gap level - Correct Ans-Normal range is 3-10 Osmol gap normal range and heat does an elevated value mean - Correct Ans-Normal range is <10 mOsm/kg; elevated levels indicate ethyl alcohol (etoh) consumption What triggers renin releases - Correct Ans-Triggered by dehydration; involved in the regulation of blood pressure What does a cirrhosis and HF do to oncotic pressure - Correct Ans-Increased in cirrhosis; decreased in heart failure What does an elevated serum osmolality pul...
- Exam (elaborations)
- • 7 pages •
Anion gap level - Correct Ans-Normal range is 3-10 Osmol gap normal range and heat does an elevated value mean - Correct Ans-Normal range is <10 mOsm/kg; elevated levels indicate ethyl alcohol (etoh) consumption What triggers renin releases - Correct Ans-Triggered by dehydration; involved in the regulation of blood pressure What does a cirrhosis and HF do to oncotic pressure - Correct Ans-Increased in cirrhosis; decreased in heart failure What does an elevated serum osmolality pul...
Nurs 5315 UTA exam 1 study questions and answers 2025
Atrophy - Correct Ans-E. Cells decrease in size P. Still functional Physiologic: thymus gland in early childhood Pathological: disuse Hypertrophy - Correct Ans-E. Increase in cell size P. Increased workload Physiologic: weightlifting Pathologic: cardiomegaly from HTN Hyperplasia - Correct Ans-E. Increase in cell number P. Increased cellular division Physiologic: liver regeneration Pathologic: endometrial- usually r/t hormones Dysplasia - Correct Ans-E. Cells change in size, sh...
- Exam (elaborations)
- • 7 pages •
Atrophy - Correct Ans-E. Cells decrease in size P. Still functional Physiologic: thymus gland in early childhood Pathological: disuse Hypertrophy - Correct Ans-E. Increase in cell size P. Increased workload Physiologic: weightlifting Pathologic: cardiomegaly from HTN Hyperplasia - Correct Ans-E. Increase in cell number P. Increased cellular division Physiologic: liver regeneration Pathologic: endometrial- usually r/t hormones Dysplasia - Correct Ans-E. Cells change in size, sh...
NURS 5315 UTA Exam 2 Questions and Answers Top Graded 2025 A+ Solved Accurately
HIV EIA (3rd generation immunoassay) - Correct Ans-can use urine, saliva, or serum (most accurate), need to wait until 12 weeks post exposure to see antibodies, >99% accurate 4th generation immunoassay- "gold standard" measures P24 antigen can test 10 days post exposure Mast cell - Correct Ans-Cellular bags of granules located in loose connective tisssue close to blood vessels. Activation initiates inflammatory process. Histamine - Correct Ans-Causes vasodilation, increases vas...
- Exam (elaborations)
- • 11 pages •
HIV EIA (3rd generation immunoassay) - Correct Ans-can use urine, saliva, or serum (most accurate), need to wait until 12 weeks post exposure to see antibodies, >99% accurate 4th generation immunoassay- "gold standard" measures P24 antigen can test 10 days post exposure Mast cell - Correct Ans-Cellular bags of granules located in loose connective tisssue close to blood vessels. Activation initiates inflammatory process. Histamine - Correct Ans-Causes vasodilation, increases vas...
WGU - C214 Financial Management Final Exam Graded A 2024
Sgts Course Leadership II Study Guide 2024
Half of these answers aren't on the test and are out dated.
PRAXIS 5422 Exam Study Guide Questions with Answers 2024
G-60, G60, F-60 FIRE GUARD, F-60 Study Material Exam Study Questions and Answers Graded A 2024
6531 i-Human Brenda James