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[Show more]What are typical features of retinal hemorrhages in newborns? - Commonly seen in otherwise 
healthy newborn and most often occur after vaginal delivery but also can be present after suction 
delivery of cesarean section 
What are clinical findings of retinal hemorrhage? - Unilateral or bilateral hem...
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Add to cartWhat are typical features of retinal hemorrhages in newborns? - Commonly seen in otherwise 
healthy newborn and most often occur after vaginal delivery but also can be present after suction 
delivery of cesarean section 
What are clinical findings of retinal hemorrhage? - Unilateral or bilateral hem...
Major congenital anomalies - 1.5% live births 
20-25% of perinatal/neonatal deaths 
2 vessel cord - Only slightly increases risk of associated defects 
Small placenta - Always associated w/sm infant 
Erythroblastosis featalis -Most severe form if rh isoimmunization 
Life threatening anemia 
Generali...
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Add to cartMajor congenital anomalies - 1.5% live births 
20-25% of perinatal/neonatal deaths 
2 vessel cord - Only slightly increases risk of associated defects 
Small placenta - Always associated w/sm infant 
Erythroblastosis featalis -Most severe form if rh isoimmunization 
Life threatening anemia 
Generali...
How does obstruction typically occur? - Can result of any part of the drainage system from 
incomplete canalization of the duct or membranous obstructions 
How does nasolacrimal duct obstruction typically present? - Tearing, mucoid discharge from the 
affected eye (especially in the morning), erythe...
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Add to cartHow does obstruction typically occur? - Can result of any part of the drainage system from 
incomplete canalization of the duct or membranous obstructions 
How does nasolacrimal duct obstruction typically present? - Tearing, mucoid discharge from the 
affected eye (especially in the morning), erythe...
What is opthalmia neonatorum? - It is conjunctivitis of the newborn 
What is the pathogenesis of opthalmia neonatorum? - May be inflammation resulting from silver 
nitrate prophylaxis given at birth or bacterial infection 
How do you prevent opthalmia neonatorum? - Treatment of maternal infections p...
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Add to cartWhat is opthalmia neonatorum? - It is conjunctivitis of the newborn 
What is the pathogenesis of opthalmia neonatorum? - May be inflammation resulting from silver 
nitrate prophylaxis given at birth or bacterial infection 
How do you prevent opthalmia neonatorum? - Treatment of maternal infections p...
The peak velocity of aortic regurgitation indicates the maximum pressure gradient between: 
the aorta and the LV in systole 
the aorta and the LV in diastole 
the LV and the LA in diastole 
the LV and the LA in diastole - Answer-the aorta and the LV in diastole 
Which type of image resolution improv...
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Add to cartThe peak velocity of aortic regurgitation indicates the maximum pressure gradient between: 
the aorta and the LV in systole 
the aorta and the LV in diastole 
the LV and the LA in diastole 
the LV and the LA in diastole - Answer-the aorta and the LV in diastole 
Which type of image resolution improv...
Which liver pathology is most commonly associated with the GB pathology demonstrated on the images 
A. Hepatoma 
B. fatty infiltration 
C. FNH 
D. hepatitis - D. hepatitis 
A. courses superiorly through the right intersegmental fissure 
B. courses inferiorly through the right intersegmental fissure ...
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Add to cartWhich liver pathology is most commonly associated with the GB pathology demonstrated on the images 
A. Hepatoma 
B. fatty infiltration 
C. FNH 
D. hepatitis - D. hepatitis 
A. courses superiorly through the right intersegmental fissure 
B. courses inferiorly through the right intersegmental fissure ...
A 40 yr old female patient presents with nausea, vomiting and increasing ABD pain following a recent 
procedure. The patient has a history of a mass in the head of the pancreas and an ERCP was performed 
to evaluate the ductal involvement. The ERCP report states the ductal system at the head of the ...
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Add to cartA 40 yr old female patient presents with nausea, vomiting and increasing ABD pain following a recent 
procedure. The patient has a history of a mass in the head of the pancreas and an ERCP was performed 
to evaluate the ductal involvement. The ERCP report states the ductal system at the head of the ...
_____ what facilitates the contraction of the atrial appendages? 
a. drop in pressure in the atria during systole 
b. squeezing of the pericardium with cardiac contraction 
c. pectinate muscle in the walls of the appendages 
d. increased thoracic pressure with deep inspiration - c. pectinate muscle ...
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Add to cart_____ what facilitates the contraction of the atrial appendages? 
a. drop in pressure in the atria during systole 
b. squeezing of the pericardium with cardiac contraction 
c. pectinate muscle in the walls of the appendages 
d. increased thoracic pressure with deep inspiration - c. pectinate muscle ...
When a patient performs exercise on a treadmill, what will be the normal change an arterial flow in the 
legs? - Increased antegrade flow in diastole 
A patient presents for an exercise arterial exam after an abnormal resting exam. The report from the 
resting exam describes elevated velocity is tha...
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Add to cartWhen a patient performs exercise on a treadmill, what will be the normal change an arterial flow in the 
legs? - Increased antegrade flow in diastole 
A patient presents for an exercise arterial exam after an abnormal resting exam. The report from the 
resting exam describes elevated velocity is tha...
Letter A indicated which of the following structures? 
A. Internal thoracic artery 
B. Vertebral artery 
C. Superior temporal artery 
D. Thyrocervical trunk - A Internal thoracic artery 
What is causing the waveform displayed? 
A. proximal stenosis 
B. Distal stenosis. 
C. Arrhythmia 
D. Subclavian ...
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Add to cartLetter A indicated which of the following structures? 
A. Internal thoracic artery 
B. Vertebral artery 
C. Superior temporal artery 
D. Thyrocervical trunk - A Internal thoracic artery 
What is causing the waveform displayed? 
A. proximal stenosis 
B. Distal stenosis. 
C. Arrhythmia 
D. Subclavian ...
a patient presents with an order for a lower extremity venous doppler exam to rule out DVT. this patient 
should be evaluated in the _____ position in order to _______ - - semi-erect 
- increase hydrostatic pressure 
when evaluating a suspected thoracic outlet syndrome, a PPG exam can be performed w...
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Add to carta patient presents with an order for a lower extremity venous doppler exam to rule out DVT. this patient 
should be evaluated in the _____ position in order to _______ - - semi-erect 
- increase hydrostatic pressure 
when evaluating a suspected thoracic outlet syndrome, a PPG exam can be performed w...
The difference in LV length measurements obtained in the apical 4 chamber and apical 2 chamber views 
should be: 
a. less than 20% 
b. less than 5mm 
c. less than 10% 
d. less than 1cm - c. less than 10% 
measurement of the time it takes for the velocity of MR to increase from 1 to 3 m/s is used to ...
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Add to cartThe difference in LV length measurements obtained in the apical 4 chamber and apical 2 chamber views 
should be: 
a. less than 20% 
b. less than 5mm 
c. less than 10% 
d. less than 1cm - c. less than 10% 
measurement of the time it takes for the velocity of MR to increase from 1 to 3 m/s is used to ...
a patient presents for an anatomy scan of a 20wk gestation. she states that she has a history or a prior 
pregnancy with an atrioventricular septal defect. what is the best way to evaluate this fetus? 
a. trans view of the fetal head with the beam perpendicular to the parietal bones 
b. coronal view...
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Add to carta patient presents for an anatomy scan of a 20wk gestation. she states that she has a history or a prior 
pregnancy with an atrioventricular septal defect. what is the best way to evaluate this fetus? 
a. trans view of the fetal head with the beam perpendicular to the parietal bones 
b. coronal view...
produce progesterone and bhCG in very early pregnancy. These cells develop into the chorionic villi of 
the placenta - Trophoblastic cells 
Which of the following ovarian tumors contains both epithelial and 
stromal components? 
A: serous cystadenoma 
B: thecoma 
C: cystadenofibroma 
D: mucinous cys...
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Add to cartproduce progesterone and bhCG in very early pregnancy. These cells develop into the chorionic villi of 
the placenta - Trophoblastic cells 
Which of the following ovarian tumors contains both epithelial and 
stromal components? 
A: serous cystadenoma 
B: thecoma 
C: cystadenofibroma 
D: mucinous cys...
When thrombin is injected into a pseudoaneurysm, the clotting should begin: - Within 5 to 10 
seconds post injection 
A physician orders, a vein mapping of the left upper extremity for potential arterial bypass harvesting, 
but does not indicate which vessel he plans to use. Which lane should you ev...
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Add to cartWhen thrombin is injected into a pseudoaneurysm, the clotting should begin: - Within 5 to 10 
seconds post injection 
A physician orders, a vein mapping of the left upper extremity for potential arterial bypass harvesting, 
but does not indicate which vessel he plans to use. Which lane should you ev...
which of the following types of placenta previa is defined as placental vessels crossing the internal os? 
a. vasa previa 
b. partial previa 
c. marginal previa 
d. velamentous previa - a. vasa previa 
What view is used to demonstrate the fetal thymus gland and where is located 
a. transverse abdomi...
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Add to cartwhich of the following types of placenta previa is defined as placental vessels crossing the internal os? 
a. vasa previa 
b. partial previa 
c. marginal previa 
d. velamentous previa - a. vasa previa 
What view is used to demonstrate the fetal thymus gland and where is located 
a. transverse abdomi...
Frequencies used in transthoracic imaging are usually in the range of ____________. Frequencies used in 
transesophageal imaging are usually in the range of ______________. 
A) 3-6 MHz;6-8 MHz 
B) 3-6 MHz; 5-7 MHz 
C) 2.5-4 MHz; 5-7 MHz 
D) 1-3 MHz; 6-8 MHz - 2.5-4 MHz; 5-7 MHz 
Which of the followi...
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Add to cartFrequencies used in transthoracic imaging are usually in the range of ____________. Frequencies used in 
transesophageal imaging are usually in the range of ______________. 
A) 3-6 MHz;6-8 MHz 
B) 3-6 MHz; 5-7 MHz 
C) 2.5-4 MHz; 5-7 MHz 
D) 1-3 MHz; 6-8 MHz - 2.5-4 MHz; 5-7 MHz 
Which of the followi...
Which of the following conditions requires immediate communication of the results to the radiologist? 
A. placental abruption and gastroschisis 
B. renal agenesis and ompahlocele 
C. premature rupture of membranes and placental abruption 
D. renal agenesis, premature rupture of membranes, and placen...
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Add to cartWhich of the following conditions requires immediate communication of the results to the radiologist? 
A. placental abruption and gastroschisis 
B. renal agenesis and ompahlocele 
C. premature rupture of membranes and placental abruption 
D. renal agenesis, premature rupture of membranes, and placen...
arterial occlusion. Remember the 6 "P" of acute arterial occlusion: pain, pulselessness, pallor, polar, 
paresthesia, and paralysis. 
D-dimer levels are most accurate for predicting: 
A. the absence of DVT 
B. the risk of pulmonary embolism 
C. the presence of DVT 
D. the risk of clot formation - ...
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Add to cartarterial occlusion. Remember the 6 "P" of acute arterial occlusion: pain, pulselessness, pallor, polar, 
paresthesia, and paralysis. 
D-dimer levels are most accurate for predicting: 
A. the absence of DVT 
B. the risk of pulmonary embolism 
C. the presence of DVT 
D. the risk of clot formation - ...
Transducer contains a large number of rectangular piezoelectric elements arranged in a linear pattern - 
sector phased array 
increasing the line density will _______ # of pulses per frame, improve spatial resolution (axial and 
lateral), __________ frame rate and ___________ temporal resolution. in...
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Add to cartTransducer contains a large number of rectangular piezoelectric elements arranged in a linear pattern - 
sector phased array 
increasing the line density will _______ # of pulses per frame, improve spatial resolution (axial and 
lateral), __________ frame rate and ___________ temporal resolution. in...
Which setting should be lowered to the minimum level when beginning to evaluate the patient using the 
orbital window? 
a.) Output power 
b.) Doppler gain 
c.) Wall filter 
d.) Velocity scale - a.) Output power 
If the Doppler cursor angle is underestimated, the velocity of the flow will be ________...
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Add to cartWhich setting should be lowered to the minimum level when beginning to evaluate the patient using the 
orbital window? 
a.) Output power 
b.) Doppler gain 
c.) Wall filter 
d.) Velocity scale - a.) Output power 
If the Doppler cursor angle is underestimated, the velocity of the flow will be ________...
Velocities are usually higher at the proximal anastomosis site of a _____ ______ ______ because the 
diameter of the graft increases distally - reversed in situ graft 
Why is there no aliasing on CW doppler - CW uses two elements to send and receive sound 
waves, PW only uses one 
What is true regar...
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Add to cartVelocities are usually higher at the proximal anastomosis site of a _____ ______ ______ because the 
diameter of the graft increases distally - reversed in situ graft 
Why is there no aliasing on CW doppler - CW uses two elements to send and receive sound 
waves, PW only uses one 
What is true regar...
give the correct order of receiver operations - 1. amplification 
2. compensation 
3. compression 
4. demodulation 
5. reject 
(low or high) frequency and (low or high) amplitude, will cause an increase in the mechanical index and 
the risk for cavitation - low frequency, high amplitude 
give the co...
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Add to cartgive the correct order of receiver operations - 1. amplification 
2. compensation 
3. compression 
4. demodulation 
5. reject 
(low or high) frequency and (low or high) amplitude, will cause an increase in the mechanical index and 
the risk for cavitation - low frequency, high amplitude 
give the co...
The main advantage of a curvilinear transducer over a vector transducer is: 
A. the ability to perform CW Doppler with 2D imaging 
B. the smaller footprint 
C. the wider near field 
D. the ability to scan at increased frame rates - the wider near field 
Which of the following describes the primary a...
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Add to cartThe main advantage of a curvilinear transducer over a vector transducer is: 
A. the ability to perform CW Doppler with 2D imaging 
B. the smaller footprint 
C. the wider near field 
D. the ability to scan at increased frame rates - the wider near field 
Which of the following describes the primary a...
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