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HESI EXIT PHARMACOLOGY V1-V2 EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A
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HESI EXIT PHARMACOLOGY V1-V2 EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A
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2021-2022 HESI EXIT PHARMACOLOGY V2 EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A1 . A healthcare provider prescribes cephalexin monohydrate (Keflex) for a client with a postoperative
infection. It is most important for the nurse to assess for what additional drug allergy before
administering this prescription?
A) Penicillins.
B) Aminoglycosides.
C) Erythromycins.
D) Sulfonamides.
A) Penicillins.
Cross-allergies exist between penicillins (A) and cephalosporins, such as cephalexin monohydrate
(Keflex), so checking for penicillin allergy is a wise precaution before administering this drug.
2. Which nursing intervention is most important when caring for a client receiving the
antimetabolite cytosine arabinoside (Arc-C) for chemotherapy?
A) Hydrate the client with IV fluids before and after infusion.
B) Assess the client for numbness and tingling of extremities.
C) Inspect the client's oral mucosa for ulcerations.
D) Monitor the client's urine pH for increased acidity.
C) Inspect the client's oral mucosa for ulcerations.
Cytosine arabinoside (Arc-C) affects the rapidly growing cells of the body, therefore stomatitis and
mucosal ulcerations are key signs of antimetabolite toxicity (C). (A, B, and D) are not typical
interventions associated with the administration of antimetabolites.
,3. When assessing an adolescent who recently overdosed on acetaminophen (Tylenol), it is most
important for the nurse to assess for pain in which area of the body?
A) Flank.
B) Abdomen.
C) Chest.
D) Head.
B) Abdomen.
Acetaminophen toxicity can result in liver damage; therefore, it is especially important for the nurse to
assess
for pain in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen (B), which might indicate liver damage. (A, C, and D)
are not areas where pain would be anticipated.
4. An adult client is given a prescription for a scopolamine patch (Transderm Scop) to prevent
motion sickness while on a cruise. Which information should the nurse provide to the client?
A) Apply the patch at least 4 hours prior to departure.
B) Change the patch every other day while on the cruise.
C) Place the patch on a hairless area at the base of the skull.
D) Drink no more than 2 alcoholic drinks during the cruise.
A) Apply the patch at least 4 hours prior to departure.
,Scopolamine, an anticholinergic agent, is used to prevent motion sickness and has a peak onset in 6
hours, so the client should be instructed to apply the patch at least 4 hours before departure (A) on the
cruise ship. The duration of the transdermal patch is 72 hours, so (B) is not needed. Scolopamine blocks
muscarinic receptors in the inner ear and to the vomiting center, so the best application site of the
patch is behind the ear, not at the base of the skull (C). Anticholinergic medications are CNS
depressants, so the client should be instructed to avoid alcohol (D) while using the patch.
5. The nurse is reviewing the use of the patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump with a client in
the immediate postoperative period. The client will receive morphine 1 mg IV per hour basal rate with 1
mg IV every 15 minutes per PCA to total 5 mg IV maximally per hour. What assessment has the highest
priority before initiating the PCA pump?
A) The expiration date on the morphine syringe in the pump.
B) The rate and depth of the client's respirations.
C) The type of anesthesia used during the surgical procedure.
D) The client's subjective and objective signs of pain.
B) The rate and depth of the client's respirations.
A life-threatening side effect of intravenous administration of morphine sulfate, an opiate narcotic, is
respiratory depression (B). The PCA pump should be stopped and the healthcare provider notified if the
client's respiratory rate falls below 12 breaths per minute, and the nurse should anticipate adjustments
in the client's dosage before the PCA pump is restarted. (A, C, and D) provide helpful information, but
are not as high a priority as the assessment described in (B).
6. A medication that is classified as a beta-1 agonist is most commonly prescribed for a client with
which condition?
A) Glaucoma.
B) Hypertension.
, C) Heart failure.
D) Asthma.
C) Heart failure.
Beta-1 agonists improve cardiac output by increasing the heart rate and blood pressure and are
indicated in heart failure (C), shock, atrioventricular block dysrhythmias, and cardiac arrest. Glaucoma
(A) is managed using adrenergic agents and beta-adrenergic blocking agents. Beta-1 blocking agents are
used in the management of hypertension (B). Medications that stimulate beta-2 receptors in the bronchi
are effective for bronchoconstriction in respiratory disorders, such as asthma (D).
7. A female client with rheumatoid arthritis take ibuprofen (Motrin) 600 mg PO 4 times a day. To
prevent gastrointestinal bleeding, misoprostol (Cytotec) 100 mcg PO is prescribed. Which information is
most important for the nurse to include in client teaching?
A) Use contraception during intercourse.
B) Ensure the Cytotec is taken on an empty stomach.
C) Encourage oral fluid intake to prevent constipation.
D) Take Cytotec 30 minutes prior to Motrin.
A) Use contraception during intercourse.
Cytotec, a synthetic form of a prostaglandin, is classified as pregnancy Category X and can act as an
abortifacient, so the client should be instructed to use contraception during intercourse (A) to prevent
loss of an early pregnancy. (B) is not necessary. A common side effect of Cytotec is diarrhea, so
constipation prevention strategies are usually not needed (C). Cytotec and Motrin should be taken
together (D) to provide protective properties against gastrointestinal bleeding.
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