genetic analysis an integrated approach 3rd edition sanders test bank
genetic analysis an integrated approach 3rd edition sanders
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genetic analysis an integrated approach
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genetic analysis an integrated approach 3rd edition sanders
Test Item File- Practice Test Bank - Genetic Analysis An Integrated Approach,Sanders
Samenvatting hoorcolleges genetica en evolutie
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Genetic Analysis An Integrated Approach
Genetic Analysis An Integrated Approach
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1 Genetic Analysis An Integrated Approach 3rd Edition Sanders Test Bank Exam Name MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Sexual reproduction uses to generate gametes, which join at fertilization. A) meiosis; haploid B) mitosis; haploid C) meiosis; diploid D) mitosis; identical E) mitosis; diploid 1) 2) When a diploid cell divides by mitosis, the result is . A) unique haploid cells B) identical diploid cells C) a zygote D) identical haploid cells E) unique diploid cells 2) 3) Modern genetics consists of three major branches. Which of these branches, also known as "transmission genetics," involves the study of the transmission of traits and characteristics in successive generations? A) molecular B) evolutionary C) population D) reproductive E) Mendelian 3) 4) You identify a new unicellular organism with multiple chromosomes organized by proteins within the cell's nucleus. Into which of the three domains of life might this organism fit? A) Archaea B) Eukarya C) Bacteria D) Archaea or Bacteria E) Archaea or Eukarya 4) 5) Watson and Crick used evidence from several studies to determine the structure of DNA. What conclusion were they able to draw from Rosalind Franklin's X-ray diffraction data, specifically? A) DNA is a duplex, with two strands forming a double helix. B) DNA consists of four types of nucleotide bases: A, T, C, and G. C) Adenine pairs with thymine and cytosine pairs with guanine when they are on opposite DNA strands. D) DNA nucleotides form complementary base pairs. E) The DNA strands are antiparallel, and the strands are held together by hydrogen bonds. 5) 2 6) What kind of bond is formed between the 5′ phosphate group of one nucleotide and the 3′ hydroxyl (OH) group of the adjacent nucleotide? A) hydrogen bond B) disulfide bond C) ionic bond D) hydroxyl bond E) phosphodiester bond 6) 7) What kind of bond is formed between complementary base pairs to join the two DNA strands into a double helix? A) hydrogen bond B) phosphodiester bond C) disulfide bond D) ionic bond E) peptide bond 7) 8) Identify which of the following includes three possible components of a RNA nucleotide? A) ribose, thymine, phosphate group B) deoxyribose, cytosine, phosphate group C) ribose, adenine, phosphate group D) deoxyribose, uracil, phosphate group E) deoxyribose, guanine, phosphate group 8) 9) What chemical group appears on the 5' carbon of a DNA nucleotide? A) carboxyl group B) amino group C) nitrogenous base D) hydroxyl group E) phosphate group 9) 10) If a eukaryotic chromosome was composed of 20% adenine, how much cytosine should theoretically be present in that same chromosome? A) 40% B) 60% C) 20% D) 30% E) 10% 10) 11) Use the data in the following table to determine which nucleic acid sample can be ALL of the following 4 types: double -stranded DNA, single -stranded DNA, double -stranded RNA, or single -stranded RNA. 11) A) Sample 1 B) Sample 2 C) Sample 3 D) Sample 4 E) Sample 5 Nucleic Acid Sample Sample 1 Sample 2 Sample 3 Sample 4 Sample 5 Data 25% of the bases are thymine 35% of the bases are adenine 25% of the bases are uracil 55% of the bases are cytosine 50% of the five-carbon sugars are deoxyribose 3 12) What is the sequence and polarity of the DNA strand complementary to the strand 5' AAATGTCCATGC 3'? A) 5' UUUACAGGUACG 3' B) 3' TTTACAGGTACG 5' C) 5' TTTACAGGTACG 3' D) 3' UUUACAGGUACG 5' E) 3' AAATGTCCATGC 5' 12) 13) Messenger RNA (mRNA) is . A) the monomer of polypeptides B) a molecule that incorporates a specific amino acid into the growing protein when it recognizes a specific group of three bases C) the major structural material making up ribosomes D) the molecule that carries the genetic information from DNA and is used as a template for protein synthesis E) the major structural component of chromosomes 13) 14) What are the DNA regulatory sequences recognized by RNA polymerase called? A) introns B) termination sequences C) promoters D) anticodons E) proteomes 14) 15) What is the process of synthesizing proteins from mRNA sequences? A) transcription B) transformation C) transduction D) replication E) translation 15) 16) What is the process of synthesizing single -stranded RNA from template DNA? A) transformation B) translation C) replication D) transduction E) transcription 16) 17) What kind of bond is formed between successive amino acids during translation? A) ionic bond B) peptide bond C) disulfide bond D) hydrogen bond E) phosphodiester bond 17) 4 18) Retroviruses carry their genetic information in the form of RNA, which is subsequently coded into DNA after the virus enters its host cell. What enzyme does the retrovirus use to produce this initial DNA? A) ribosomes B) DNA polymerase C) reverse transcriptase D) RNA polymerase E) reverse translationase 18) 19) Only sixty-one of the sixty-four codons specify an amino acid. In what process do the other three codons function? A) initiation of replication B) termination of transcription C) termination of translation D) initiation of translation E) initiation of transcription 19) 20) The movement of DNA or RNA in gel electrophoresis is often a matter of molecular weight alone. Which of the following molecular parameters usually influence the movement of protein? A) only shape B) only weight and shape C) only charge D) weight, charge, or shape E) only weight 20) 21) Which of the following statements is NOT consistent with the DNA fragments shown in the gel? 21) A) Band 1 has a lower electrophoretic mobility than Band 2 B) Band 1 has a lower molecular mass than Band 2 C) Band 1 must have been stained or hybridized by a molecular probe D) Band 1 is closer to the origin of migration than Band 2 E) Band 1 must have a negative charge
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