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AORN PERIOP 101 QUESTION (330) WITH CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS / GRADE A+ ASSURED /LATEST €18,57
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AORN PERIOP 101 QUESTION (330) WITH CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS / GRADE A+ ASSURED /LATEST

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AORN PERIOP 101 QUESTION (330) WITH CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS / GRADE A+ ASSURED /LATEST

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  • 27 juli 2024
  • 27
  • 2023/2024
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  • aorn periop 101
  • aorn periop
  • aorn periop 101 question 330 with correct verif

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Voorbeeld van de inhoud

AORN PERIOP 101 QUESTION (330) WITH CORRECT
VERIFIED ANSWERS / GRADE A+ ASSURED / LATEST
2024-2025

1. All the following professionals are qualified to provide anesthesia to a patient
EXCEPT:
a) anesthesiologist
b) CRNA
c) anesthesiology assistant
d) operating surgeon: d) operating surgeon
2. Of the following, which is not used to secure airway: a)
ET tube
b) LMA
c) nasal cannula
d) oral airway: c) nasal cannula
3. The perioperative team should know the location of equipment stored in the OR
and in the department. Equipment that the anesthesia provider may request
includes:
a) video laryngoscopy devices
b) fiberoptic bronchoscopes
c) suction tips and devices
d) all of the above: d) all of the above
4. General Anesthesia: a drug-induced reversible state of unconsciousness, it includes
amnesia, analgesia, loss of responsiveness, decreased stress response, and loss of
skeletal muscle reflexes to varying degree
5. Regional Anesthesia: an injection of local anesthetics near nerve fibers to cause
reversible loss of sensation over an area of the body, common examples include
spinal, epidural, and peripheral nerve blocks
6. Monitored Anesthesia Care (MAC): when an anesthesia provider monitors the
patient, administers sedatives and other agents as needed, and provides medical
services as needed
7. Moderate Sedation: the administration of sedative, analgesic, and/or anxiolytic
agents by a physician or under physician supervision. Depending on state laws and
hospital policies, a perioperative nurse may be able to administer this type of
anesthesia




,8. Local Anesthesia: The infiltration or topical administration of agents to anesthetize a
part of the body. It is typically used for minor procedures, does not involve an
anesthesia provider, and does not involve sedation. A perioperative nurse monitors the
patient and provides supportive care if needed.
9. The phases of general anesthesia, in order, are:
a) induction, maintenance, emergence
b) emergence, maintenance, induction
c) maintenance, emergence, induction
d) induction, emergence, maintenance: a) induction, maintenance, emergence
10. Propofol: IV induction agent
11. etomidate: IV induction agent
12. methohexitol: IV induction agent
13. IV induction agent: ketamine
14. sevoflurane with or without nitric oxide: inhaled induction agent
15. Succinylcholine: short-acting muscle relaxant
16. cisatracurium: intermediate-acting muscle relaxant
17. atracurium: intermediate-acting muscle relaxant
18. rocuronium: intermediate-acting muscle relaxant
19. vecuronium: intermediate-acting muscle relaxant
20. pancuronium: long-acting muscle relaxant
21. isoflurane: used for inhalation maintenance
22. desflurane: used for inhalation maintenance
23. total iv anesthesia (TIVA): a technique for maintaining anesthesia using infusions
of short-acting IV agents without inhalation anesthetics. Propofol and remifentanil
are often used for TIVA.
24. Reversal agent for succinylcholine: none!
25. neostigmine: reversal for muscle relaxant (except succinylcholine)
26. edrophonium: reversal for muscle relaxant (except succinylcholine)
27. sugammadex: reversal agent for rocuronium, vecuronium, and pancuronium
28. flumazenil: reversal agent for benzos (midazolam)
29. naloxone: reversal agent for narcotics (fentanyl)
30. which of the following type of airway maintenance usually requires muscle
relazants?
a) spontaneous respiration




, .


b) mask ventilation
c) laryngeal mask airway
d) endotracheal intubation: d) endotracheal intubation 31. When should cricoid
pressure be released?
a) if the patient coughs
b) when the patient loses consciousness
c) if the anesthesia provider cannot see the vocal cords
d) after the cuff of the ET tube is inflated and the position is confirmed: d) after the
cuff of the ET tube is inflated and the position is confirmed
32. lidocaine: local anesthetic
33. bupivacaine: local anesthetic
34. ropivacaine: local anesthetic
35 tetracaine: for long-acting spinal anesthesia
36. epinephrine (anesthesia): added to increase density and duration of a regional block
37. bicarbonate (anesthesia): sometimes added to reduce the acidity of the local
anesthetic and speed the onset of the block
38. Spinal Anesthesia: the subarachnoid space is entered and local anesthetic is injected
directly into the spinal canal, pt sitting or lateral
39. Epidural Anesthesia: the anesthesia care provider finds the space between the
ligamentum flavum and dura, this space is identified by a loss of resistance as the
needle is advanced, a single dose of anesthetic can be injected, or a catheter can be
placed
40. IV regional anesthesia (Bier Block): used for procedures on hand, wrist, or forearm
(double tourniquet method)
41. Local Anesthetic System Toxicity (LAST): can occur if unsafe amount of local
anesthetic enters bloodstream, can occur slowly as med is absorbed over time, or
quickly if accidentally injected into blood vessel
CAN PROGRESS TO SEIZURES AND CARDIAC OR RESP ARREST
42. Symptoms of LAST: -ringing in ears
-tingling lips
-metallic taste in mouth -
dizziness
43. Sedation can be used with any of the following types of anesthesia except: a)
regional anesthesia
b) monitored anesthesia care
c) general anesthesia

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