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HHPD MIDTERM 2 QUESTIONS & ANSWERS VERIFIED 100% CORRECT!!
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HHPD MIDTERM 2QUESTIONS &
ANSWERS VERIFIED
100% CORRECT!!
HHPD
Evatee 8/15/24 HHPD
,HHPD MIDTERM 2 QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
VERIFIED 100% CORRECT!!
A 29-year-old physical therapist presents for evaluation of an eyelid problem.
On observation, the right eyeball appears to be protruding forward. Based on
this description, what is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Ptosis
B. Exophthalmos
C. Ectropion
D. Epicanthus Answer - B. Exophthalmos
Exophthalmos is the condition when the eyeball protrudes forward. If it is
bilateral, it suggests the presence of Graves' disease. If it is unilateral, it could
still be caused by Graves' disease. Alternatively, it could be caused by a tumor
or inflammation in the orbit.
A 12-year-old presents to the clinic with his father for evaluation of a painful
lump in the left eye. It started this morning. He denies any trauma or injury.
There is no visual disturbance. Upon physical examination, there is a red raised
area at the margin of the eyelid that is tender to palpation; no tearing occurs
with palpation of the lesion. Based on this description, what is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. Dacryocystitis
B. Chalazion
C. Hordeolum
D. Xanthelasma Answer - C. Hordeolum
,A hordeolum, or sty, is a painful, tender, erythematous infection in a gland at
the margin of the eyelid.
A 15-year-old high school sophomore presents to the emergency room with his
mother for evaluation of an area of blood in the left eye. He denies trauma or
injury but has been coughing forcefully with a recent cold. He denies visual
disturbances, eye pain, or discharge from the eye. On physical examination, the
pupils are equal, round, and reactive to light, with a visual acuity of 20/20 in
each eye and 20/20 bilaterally. There is a homogeneous, sharply demarcated
area at the lateral aspect of the base of the left eye. The cornea is clear. Based
on this description, what is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Conjunctivitis
B) Acute iritis
C) Corneal abrasion
D) Subconjunctival hemorrhage Answer - D) Subconjunctival hemorrhage
A subconjunctival hemorrhage is a leakage of blood outside of the vessels,
which produces a homogenous, sharply demarcated bright red area; it fades
over several days, turning yellow, then disappears. There is no associated eye
pain, ocular discharge, or changes in visual acuity; the cornea is clear. Many
times it is associated with severe cough, choking, or vomiting, which increase
venous pressure. It is rarely caused by a serious condition, so reassurance is
usually the only treatment necessary.
A 67-year-old lawyer comes to your clinic for an annual examination. He denies
any history of eye trauma. He denies any visual changes. You inspect his eyes
and find a triangular thickening of the bulbar conjunctiva across the outer
surface of the cornea.
He has a normal pupillary reaction to light and accommodation. Based on this
description, what is the most likely diagnosis?
, A. Corneal arcus
B. Cataracts
C. Corneal scar
D. Pterygium Answer - D. Pterygium
A pterygium is a triangular thickening of the bulbar conjunctiva that grows
slowly across the outer surface of the cornea, usually from the nasal side.
Reddening may occur, and it may interfere with vision as it encroaches on the
pupil. Otherwise, treatment is unnecessary.
A sudden, painless unilateral vision loss may be caused by which of the
following?
A. Retinal detachment
B. Corneal ulcer
C. Acute glaucoma
D. Uveitis Answer - A. Retinal detachment
Corneal ulcer, acute glaucoma, and uveitis are almost always accompanied by
pain. Retinal detachment is generally painless, as is chronic glaucoma
Sudden, painful unilateral loss of vision may be caused by which of the
following conditions?
A. Vitreous hemorrhage
B. Central retinal artery occlusion
C. Macular degeneration
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