Which of the following best describes continuous renal replacement therapy (CCRT)
A. Blood from an artery is circulated to a hemofilter using only arterial pressure and not a blood pump
B. Blood is circulated by hydrostatic pressure through a semipermeable membrane
C. Blood is pumped through a d...
Which of the following best describes continuous renal replacement therapy
(CCRT)
A. Blood from an artery is circulated to a hemofilter using only arterial pressure
and not a blood pump
B. Blood is circulated by hydrostatic pressure through a semipermeable
membrane
C. Blood is pumped through a double-lumen venous catheter to a hemofilter
D. A dialysate is used to increase clearance of uremic toxins - ANSWER- B ---
CCRT circulates the blood by hydrostatic pressure through a semipermeable
membrane. It is used in critical care units because it can be instituted quickly.
Explanation: A. Blood is pumped through a double-lumen venous catheter to a
hemofilter is continuous venovenous hemofiltration (CVVH)
B. Use of a dialysate to increase clearance of uremic toxins is also a description
of CVVH
D. Blood from an artery circulated to a hemofilter using only arterial pressure and
not a blood pump is an example of continuous arteriovenous hemofiltration
(CAVH)
Complications associated with dialysis include:
A. Peritonitis
B. Dysrhythmias
C. Bleeding especially in females
D. Anorexia - ANSWER- B---Dysrhythmias.Hemodialysis can cause hypotension,
muscle cramping and dysrhythmias during treatment
Explanation: A, B, C are all examples of complications of peritoneal dialysis.
,The difference in myocarditis and pericarditis is:
A. Myocarditis is diagnosed by a myocardial biopsy
B. Pericarditis is treated according to the cause and the type and extent of
inflammation
C. Pericarditis is caused by endocarditis
D. Myocarditis requires pericardiocentesis - ANSWER- B--- Diagnostic procedures
for pericarditis are similar to those for endocarditis and myocarditis. The age,
size and condition of the patient with pericarditis also determine treatment which
may include: analgesics, anti-inflammatory drugs, restriction of activity,
corticosteroids, and surgical intervention including percardiocentesis
Explanation: A. Performing a myocardial biopsy in a patient with suspected
myocarditis would allow diagnosis but the procedure is so high risk due to the
friability of the myocardium, it is not recommended
C. Myocarditis may be a complication of endocarditis but is usually triggered by a
viral infection such as influenza, coxsackie and HIV
D. Pericarditis may require surgical intervention such as pericardiocentesis or
removing fluid from the pericardial sac to relieve increasing pressure and
diagnose causative agents.
Acute tubular necrosis (ATN) occurs when a hypoxic condition causes renal
ischemia that damages tubular cells of the glomeruli so they are unable to
adequately filter the urine, leading to acute renal failure. Treatment of ATN
includes:
A. Loop diuretics
B. Fluid restriction
C. Antibiotics
D. FFP for coagulopathy - ANSWER- A---Loop diuretics: Adequate fluid balance is
necessary to perfuse the kidneys. Identifying and treating underlying cause is key
Explanation: C. Antibiotics including sulfonamides and streptomycin can cause
ATN. Antibiotics should only be continued if infection is present
D. Coagulopathy may develop if uremia is present. Uremia leads to destruction of
platelets and bleeding.
In Piaget's formal operational stage, development includes:
A. Egocentrism
,B. Flexibility of thought
C. Magical thinking
D. Organization - ANSWER- B---Flexibility of thought-The formal operational stage
of Piaget's theory of cognitive approach to development includes abstract
thought and flexibility of thought. The age range a child begins to exhibit this is
12 years and older
The most common cause of bladder obstruction in the pediatric male patient is:
A. Hypospadius
B. Post urethral valve related issues
C. Undescended testes
D. Single kidney - ANSWER- B---Post urethral valve issues are the most common
cause of bladder obstruction in pediatric male patients.
Explanation: A, B, D. None of these GU or renal abnormalities cause bladder
obstruction
When doing Pulmonary Function Tests (PFTs), the NP recalls:
A. Asthma is a form of restrictive lung disease
B. Forced expiration is the best indicator of obstructive airway disease
C. Forced expiration is the best indicator of restrictive airway disease
D. A value is considered abnormal if it is less than 50% of your predicted value -
ANSWER- A---Forced expiration is the best indicator of obstructive airway
disease. In PFT's, forced expiration is the best indicator of obstructive airway
disease. Obstructive disease make the lungs contain too much air and take
longer to empty. Changes in lung volumes and capacities are generally
consistent with the pattern of impairment. With obstructive lung disease total
lung capacity, functional residual capacity and residual lung volume increase.
With obstructive lung diseases, these decrease.
Explanation: B. See explanation for A.
C. A value is considered abnormal if it is less than 80% of your predicted value
D. Asthma is a type of obstructive lung disease
A child in the emergency department has point tenderness over the proximal tibia
and an appropriate history of trauma. The radiograph show a fracture through the
growth plate that extends in to the epiphysis and joint space. This type of fracture
would be characterized as:
, A. Salter - Harris Type I
B. Salter - Harris Type II
C. Salter - Harris Type III
D. Salter - Harris Type IV - ANSWER- C---Salter - Harris type III is a fracture
through the growth plate that extends into the epiphysis and into the joint space.
They may require open reduction and fixation.
Explanation: A. Salter - Harris type I occur along the growth plate
B. Salter - Harris Type II fractures extend into the metaphysis only
D. Salter - Harris Type IV fractures go through both the metaphysis and epiphysis
into the joint space. Type V fractures result from compression of the growth plate
Which of the following is considered a risk factor for neonatal respiratory distress
syndrome?
A. Neonatal sepsis
B. Poorly controlled maternal diabetes
C. Maternal preeclampsia
D. Neural tube defects - ANSWER- B--- Infants of diabetic mothers, especially
those with poor control, have delayed maturation of surfactant production and
are at risk for neonatal respiratory distress syndrome at any gestational age
Explanation: A. Infants with neonatal sepsis or pneumonia have normal
surfactant production and do not benefit from surfactant replacement therapy
C. Maternal preeclampsia is associated with acceleration of lung maturation and
surfactant production
D. Patients born full term with neural tube defects have normal lung maturation
Laboratory findings in the diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis include:
A. Ketones in urine
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Hypercarbia
D. Decreased BUN - ANSWER- A--- Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) usually exhibits
with some combination of polyuria, polydipsia, fatigue, headache, nausea, emesis
and abdominal pain. When DKA occurs, ketones are formed in the blood and
cleared in the urine.
Explanation: B. Hyperglycemia is usually present, not hypoglycemia
C. Primary metabolic acidosis with secondary respiratory alkalosis is noted
(decreased pH and hypocarbia)
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