BCPS - Peds Practice Questions and Answers 100% Correct
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BCPS - Peds
BCPS - Peds Practice Questions and Answers 100% CorrectBCPS - Peds Practice Questions and Answers 100% CorrectBCPS - Peds Practice Questions and Answers 100% CorrectBCPS - Peds Practice Questions and Answers 100% CorrectBCPS - Peds Practice Questions and Answers 100% Correct
Peds 1
An infant born...
BCPS - Peds Practice Questions
and Answers 100% Correct
Peds 1
An infant born at 36 weeks' gestation develops respiratory distress, hypotension,
and mottling at 5 hours of life. The child is transported to the neonatal intensive
care unit, where he has a witnessed seizure, and cultures are obtained. Maternal
vaginal cultures are positive for group B Streptococcus, and three doses of penicillin
were given to the mother before delivery. Which is the best empiric antibiotic
regimen?
A. Vancomycin plus cefotaxime.
B. Ampicillin plus cefotaxime.
C. Ampicillin plus ceftriaxone.
D. Ceftazidime plus gentamicin. - ANSWER - Answer: B Group B Streptococcus,
Escherichia coli, Klebsiella spp., and Listeria spp. are the most likely pathogens of
neonatal sepsis or meningitis. Ampicillin plus cefotaxime administered at meningitic
doses would provide reasonable empiric coverage (Answer B is correct).
Peds 2
Culture results for the patient in question 1 reveal gram-negative rods in the
cerebrospinal fluid. Which recommendation regarding antibiotic prophylaxis is best?
A. The patient's 5-month-old stepsister is at high risk because she is not fully
immunized; therefore, the patient should receive rifampin.
B. The patient should receive rifampin to eliminate nasal carriage of the pathogen.
C. Antibiotic prophylaxis is not indicated in this case.
D. All close contacts should receive rifampin for prophylaxis - ANSWER - Answer: C
Given this patient's age and culture results, the most likely infecting organism is E.
coli or Klebsiella spp. (gram-negative rods), for which antimicrobial prophylaxis is
not indicated (Answer C is correct).
, Peds 6
A 5-month-old infant who was born at term and is otherwise healthy was treated for
her first case of otitis media with amoxicillin 45 mg/kg/day for 7 days. On follow-up
examination, her pediatrician noticed fullness in the middle ear and a cloudy
tympanic membrane with decreased mobility. She is now afebrile and eating well.
Which is the best recommendation for her treatment?
A. No antibiotics at this time.
B. High-dose (90 mg/kg/day) amoxicillin for 7 days.
C. Decongestant and antihistamine daily until resolution.
D. Azithromycin - ANSWER - Answer: A Persistence of middle ear fluid after an
episode of AOM is common. If these findings are not associated with signs and
symptoms of infection, a diagnosis of OME is made. The AAP practice guideline for
the management of OME recommends watchful waiting (Answer A is correct).
Peds 7
A 4-year-old boy receives a diagnosis of his fourth case of otitis media within 12
months. He has not shown evidence of hearing loss or delay in language skills.
Which is the best intervention at this point?
A. Giving long-term antibiotic prophylaxis.
B. Inserting tympanostomy tubes.
C. Administering high-dose amoxicillin and ensuring that he is up to date on his
pneumococcal and influenza vaccines.
D. No antibiotic therapy is warranted. - ANSWER - Answer: C
As long as this patient continues to respond to high-dose amoxicillin, this will be
considered a first-line regimen (Answer C is correct). In addition, the pneumococcal
and influenza vaccines should be administered according to the recommended
schedule, because these organisms are common causes of AOM.
Peds 3
A 6-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with a temperature of
104°F (40°C), altered mental status, and petechiae. There is no history of trauma.
The results of a toxicology screen are negative. A complete blood cell count reveals
32 × 103 cells/mm3 with 20% bands. Culture results are pending. The patient has
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