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Complete package deal;Verified study guide with complete solution rated A version 2024 guide.
Complete package deal;Verified study guide with complete solution rated A version 2024 guide.
[Show more]Complete package deal;Verified study guide with complete solution rated A version 2024 guide.
[Show more]What are the 6 hierarchical levels of Bloom Taxonomy? - The revised Bloom taxonomy has six hierarchical levels: remember, understand, apply, analyze, evaluate, and create 
 
Remember- Recall and understanding show basic knowledge of a topic. When a learner moves to the evaluation phase, he/she ha...
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Add to cartWhat are the 6 hierarchical levels of Bloom Taxonomy? - The revised Bloom taxonomy has six hierarchical levels: remember, understand, apply, analyze, evaluate, and create 
 
Remember- Recall and understanding show basic knowledge of a topic. When a learner moves to the evaluation phase, he/she ha...
- over 1 billion unique visitors/month, 6 billion hours of videos/month 
- 25% of views come from mobile devices 
- Second largest search engine behind Google 
- 17% of all internet traffic 
- 56% of vides are <2mins 
Most common videos - - Explainers 
- Product Demos 
- How-Tos 
- Testimoni...
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Add to cart- over 1 billion unique visitors/month, 6 billion hours of videos/month 
- 25% of views come from mobile devices 
- Second largest search engine behind Google 
- 17% of all internet traffic 
- 56% of vides are <2mins 
Most common videos - - Explainers 
- Product Demos 
- How-Tos 
- Testimoni...
Federal insecticide, fungicide, and rodenticide act (FIFRA) - Approved in 1947. It provides a framework for pesticide registrations an is the pesticide users assurance that the product, if used correctly will provide some helpful service without endangering the user, other persons, or the environm...
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Add to cartFederal insecticide, fungicide, and rodenticide act (FIFRA) - Approved in 1947. It provides a framework for pesticide registrations an is the pesticide users assurance that the product, if used correctly will provide some helpful service without endangering the user, other persons, or the environm...
The total weight of your elevator (force) is 8100 lbs. and its plunger area is 50 square inches. What is the system pressure? - 162 psi 
Refer to the NEIEP Moving Walk Final Layout. What is the correct wellway-to-wellway distance? - 134' 11" 
Electrolysis is caused by which of the following?...
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Add to cartThe total weight of your elevator (force) is 8100 lbs. and its plunger area is 50 square inches. What is the system pressure? - 162 psi 
Refer to the NEIEP Moving Walk Final Layout. What is the correct wellway-to-wellway distance? - 134' 11" 
Electrolysis is caused by which of the following?...
A report of suspected child abuse is received by an agency that lacks jurisdiction (the power to make legal decisions and judgments). Which is the MOST appropriate action for the agency to take? - The agency must immediately contact an agency that has jurisdiction over suspected child abuse cases ...
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Add to cartA report of suspected child abuse is received by an agency that lacks jurisdiction (the power to make legal decisions and judgments). Which is the MOST appropriate action for the agency to take? - The agency must immediately contact an agency that has jurisdiction over suspected child abuse cases ...
The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft within Class D airspace are - 1,000 foor ceiling and 3 miles visibility 
If an in-flight emergency requires immediate action, the pilot in command may - deviate from the FAR's to the extent required to meet that emergency 
Maintenance rec...
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Add to cartThe basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft within Class D airspace are - 1,000 foor ceiling and 3 miles visibility 
If an in-flight emergency requires immediate action, the pilot in command may - deviate from the FAR's to the extent required to meet that emergency 
Maintenance rec...
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1. When should the rescuer initially ensure that the scene is safe? 
a. When the rescuer first sees a potential victim 
b. After the rescuer activates the emergency response system 
c. As emergency medical services arrive on the scene 
d. After an AED that is attached to the victim delivers a shock ...
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Add to cart1. When should the rescuer initially ensure that the scene is safe? 
a. When the rescuer first sees a potential victim 
b. After the rescuer activates the emergency response system 
c. As emergency medical services arrive on the scene 
d. After an AED that is attached to the victim delivers a shock ...
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Which key components make up the bookkeeping process? (2) - recording and classifying transactions is known as bookkeeping. 
Describe the roles filled by a accountant (3) - Accounting is a system of summarizing, interpreting, and communicating financial data. 
What are the primary functions as...
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Add to cartWhich key components make up the bookkeeping process? (2) - recording and classifying transactions is known as bookkeeping. 
Describe the roles filled by a accountant (3) - Accounting is a system of summarizing, interpreting, and communicating financial data. 
What are the primary functions as...
What is the purpose of the Texas Insurance Code Chapter 6002 - Fire Detection and Alarm Device Installation, often referred to as the 'Fire Alarm Rules'? - A. To regulate the planning, certifying, leasing, selling, servicing, installing, monitoring and maintenance of fire detection and fire ala...
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Add to cartWhat is the purpose of the Texas Insurance Code Chapter 6002 - Fire Detection and Alarm Device Installation, often referred to as the 'Fire Alarm Rules'? - A. To regulate the planning, certifying, leasing, selling, servicing, installing, monitoring and maintenance of fire detection and fire ala...
Fire alarm device - any device capable, through audible or visible means, of warning that fire or combustion has occurred or is occurring 
Fire alarm planning superintendent - a licensed individual designated by a registered firm to: 
 
(A) plan a fire alarm or detection system that conforms to ...
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Add to cartFire alarm device - any device capable, through audible or visible means, of warning that fire or combustion has occurred or is occurring 
Fire alarm planning superintendent - a licensed individual designated by a registered firm to: 
 
(A) plan a fire alarm or detection system that conforms to ...
Calculate the payment amount for the loan in cell C15. Reference the cells containing the appropriate loan information as the arguments for the function you use. Cells C20-C67 in the "Payment" column are populated with the payment amount from cell C15. [34 Points] - =PMT(Rate/#months of term,Loa...
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Add to cartCalculate the payment amount for the loan in cell C15. Reference the cells containing the appropriate loan information as the arguments for the function you use. Cells C20-C67 in the "Payment" column are populated with the payment amount from cell C15. [34 Points] - =PMT(Rate/#months of term,Loa...
What types of dedup hashes does Relativity generate? - Message Body Hash 
Header Hash 
Recipient Hash 
Attachment Hash 
What can you exclude with inventory/filters? - Domains 
File types 
File locations 
File sizes 
NIST Files 
Date ranges 
T or F - You can't change the settings of a processing...
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Add to cartWhat types of dedup hashes does Relativity generate? - Message Body Hash 
Header Hash 
Recipient Hash 
Attachment Hash 
What can you exclude with inventory/filters? - Domains 
File types 
File locations 
File sizes 
NIST Files 
Date ranges 
T or F - You can't change the settings of a processing...
varcarolis foundations of psychiatric mental health nursing 8th edition
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Add to cartvarcarolis foundations of psychiatric mental health nursing 8th edition
Evidence - Demonstrative - Tangible items; see, touch, smell, hear. 
Evidence - Documentary - Written form; business records, banking, calendars, phone records, fire reports, etc... 
Evidence - Testimonial - Competent live witness speaking under oath; two types; fact and expert 
Evidence - ill...
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Add to cartEvidence - Demonstrative - Tangible items; see, touch, smell, hear. 
Evidence - Documentary - Written form; business records, banking, calendars, phone records, fire reports, etc... 
Evidence - Testimonial - Competent live witness speaking under oath; two types; fact and expert 
Evidence - ill...
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Combustible Liquid - A liquid with a flash point ABOVE 100F 
12.5 - If the current flowing out from an electrical panel is 12.5 amps, and it then flows through an electrical load of 1500 watts, what is the amperage of the remaining current flow of the return circuit? 
1000 - If a hair dryer dr...
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Add to cartCombustible Liquid - A liquid with a flash point ABOVE 100F 
12.5 - If the current flowing out from an electrical panel is 12.5 amps, and it then flows through an electrical load of 1500 watts, what is the amperage of the remaining current flow of the return circuit? 
1000 - If a hair dryer dr...
Absolute Temperature - A temperature measured in Kelvins (K) or Rankines (R). 
Accelerant - A fuel or oxidizer, often an ignitible liquid, intentionally used to initiate a fire or increase the rate of growth or spread of fire. 
Accident - An unplanned event that interrupts an activity and some...
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Add to cartAbsolute Temperature - A temperature measured in Kelvins (K) or Rankines (R). 
Accelerant - A fuel or oxidizer, often an ignitible liquid, intentionally used to initiate a fire or increase the rate of growth or spread of fire. 
Accident - An unplanned event that interrupts an activity and some...
Chapter1 - Administration 
1.1 - Scope 
1.2 - Purpose 
1.3 - Application 
1.4 - Units of Measure 
1.5 - Measurement Uncertainty 
Chapter2 - Referenced Publications 
2.1 - General 
2.2 - NFPA Publications 
2.3 - Other Publications 
2.4 - References for Extracts in Advisory 
Chap...
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Add to cartChapter1 - Administration 
1.1 - Scope 
1.2 - Purpose 
1.3 - Application 
1.4 - Units of Measure 
1.5 - Measurement Uncertainty 
Chapter2 - Referenced Publications 
2.1 - General 
2.2 - NFPA Publications 
2.3 - Other Publications 
2.4 - References for Extracts in Advisory 
Chap...
What are the reasons for investigating fires? - To eliminate reoccurrence 
Upgrade existing fire codes 
Determine if a criminal act took place 
What is NFPA 921 - Guide for Fire and Explosion Investigations 
What is NFPA 1033 - Standards for Professional Qualifications for Fire Investigation 
...
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Add to cartWhat are the reasons for investigating fires? - To eliminate reoccurrence 
Upgrade existing fire codes 
Determine if a criminal act took place 
What is NFPA 921 - Guide for Fire and Explosion Investigations 
What is NFPA 1033 - Standards for Professional Qualifications for Fire Investigation 
...
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The basic methodology of the fire investigation should rely on the use of a ______________________ and attention to all relevant details. 
 
a. systematic approach 
b. approximation approach 
c. methodology approach 
d. general approach - a. systematic approach 
With few exceptions, the proper met...
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Add to cartThe basic methodology of the fire investigation should rely on the use of a ______________________ and attention to all relevant details. 
 
a. systematic approach 
b. approximation approach 
c. methodology approach 
d. general approach - a. systematic approach 
With few exceptions, the proper met...
The Appraisal Foundation has the authority to enforce the requirements of USPAP. - False 
Currently, the boards within the Appraisal Foundation include: - Appraisal Standards Board, Appraisal Qualifications Board, Board of Trustees 
Which Foundation board is responsible for USPAP? - Appraisal ...
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Add to cartThe Appraisal Foundation has the authority to enforce the requirements of USPAP. - False 
Currently, the boards within the Appraisal Foundation include: - Appraisal Standards Board, Appraisal Qualifications Board, Board of Trustees 
Which Foundation board is responsible for USPAP? - Appraisal ...
The Preamble states that USPAP is - for appraisers and users of appraisal services. 
The stated purpose of USPAP - Promote and maintain a high level of public trust in appraisal practice. 
When obligated by law or regulation an appraiser must - comply with USPAP. 
USPAP applies to which types ...
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Add to cartThe Preamble states that USPAP is - for appraisers and users of appraisal services. 
The stated purpose of USPAP - Promote and maintain a high level of public trust in appraisal practice. 
When obligated by law or regulation an appraiser must - comply with USPAP. 
USPAP applies to which types ...
The ASB considers suggestions for changes to USPAP from: - Appraisers, users of appraisal services, regulators, and others 
You have a suggestion for a change to USPAP, and you want to tell the ASB about it. When making your suggestion, it is helpful to the ASB if you: - Explain how the proposed c...
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Add to cartThe ASB considers suggestions for changes to USPAP from: - Appraisers, users of appraisal services, regulators, and others 
You have a suggestion for a change to USPAP, and you want to tell the ASB about it. When making your suggestion, it is helpful to the ASB if you: - Explain how the proposed c...
The boards within the Appraisal foundation include - Appraisal standards board, appraisal qualificatioms board, appraisal practices board, board of trustees 
Which independent board was created within the appraisal foundation in 2010 - Appraisal practices board APB 
Does the appraisal foundation...
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Add to cartThe boards within the Appraisal foundation include - Appraisal standards board, appraisal qualificatioms board, appraisal practices board, board of trustees 
Which independent board was created within the appraisal foundation in 2010 - Appraisal practices board APB 
Does the appraisal foundation...
The PREAMBLE states the purpose of USPAP is to maintain public ___ in the appraisal practice by establishing requirements for appraisers. - trust 
USPAP benefits providers of appraisal services and - users of appraisal services. 
Which is NOT considered significant real property appraisal assist...
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Add to cartThe PREAMBLE states the purpose of USPAP is to maintain public ___ in the appraisal practice by establishing requirements for appraisers. - trust 
USPAP benefits providers of appraisal services and - users of appraisal services. 
Which is NOT considered significant real property appraisal assist...
Interventions to prevent diabetes - - Maintain healthy weight 
- Diet 
- Exercise 
Type 1 diabetes - - Caused by insulin deficiency following cell destruction 
- Inability to produce insulin 
- Insulin dependent 
Signs of type 1 diabetes - - Polyuria - Weight loss 
- Polydipsia - Ketoacido...
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Add to cartInterventions to prevent diabetes - - Maintain healthy weight 
- Diet 
- Exercise 
Type 1 diabetes - - Caused by insulin deficiency following cell destruction 
- Inability to produce insulin 
- Insulin dependent 
Signs of type 1 diabetes - - Polyuria - Weight loss 
- Polydipsia - Ketoacido...
You have a patient that comes to the ER blood sugar 602, breathing deeply, ketos in their urine. What would you think the next test be? - Blood Gases you want to see if they have DKA 
Your giving insulin. Can you mix Novolin R and Novolin N? - No, they have to go into separate syringes, one is l...
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Add to cartYou have a patient that comes to the ER blood sugar 602, breathing deeply, ketos in their urine. What would you think the next test be? - Blood Gases you want to see if they have DKA 
Your giving insulin. Can you mix Novolin R and Novolin N? - No, they have to go into separate syringes, one is l...
Diabetes type 1 - juvenile diabetes 
insulin dependent 
body produces little or no insulin 
(Sudden onset, underweight) 
3ps 
Diabetes type 2 - adult onset diabetes, 
non-insulin dependent, 
body produces insulin but no enough, 
is more common, can be controlled by diet. 
(Obesity) 
Diabetes...
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Add to cartDiabetes type 1 - juvenile diabetes 
insulin dependent 
body produces little or no insulin 
(Sudden onset, underweight) 
3ps 
Diabetes type 2 - adult onset diabetes, 
non-insulin dependent, 
body produces insulin but no enough, 
is more common, can be controlled by diet. 
(Obesity) 
Diabetes...
The nurse is assisting in implementing care plan for a patient with dementia. Which interventions would you expect to see? (SATA) - Keep a large clock and calendar in view, reduce distractions during meal times, reduce exposure to over-stimulating situations, and monitor weight regularly for chang...
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Add to cartThe nurse is assisting in implementing care plan for a patient with dementia. Which interventions would you expect to see? (SATA) - Keep a large clock and calendar in view, reduce distractions during meal times, reduce exposure to over-stimulating situations, and monitor weight regularly for chang...
Patient with RA shows need for further teaching when? They state they must avoid ALL alcohol 
Patient has a butterfly rash, numbness in arms (Lupus) which labs would the LPN expect? ANA, CRP 
30 yr old with DM type 2, glucose of 280 BEFORE breakfast. Which symptom would the LPN see? Polyuria 
...
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Add to cartPatient with RA shows need for further teaching when? They state they must avoid ALL alcohol 
Patient has a butterfly rash, numbness in arms (Lupus) which labs would the LPN expect? ANA, CRP 
30 yr old with DM type 2, glucose of 280 BEFORE breakfast. Which symptom would the LPN see? Polyuria 
...
Test Bank for Fundamentals of Nursing 11th Edition Potter 
Perry Chapter 1-50 Complete questions and Answers 2023
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Add to cartTest Bank for Fundamentals of Nursing 11th Edition Potter 
Perry Chapter 1-50 Complete questions and Answers 2023
Which of the following pairs is mismatched? 
A) Pasteur proof of biogenesis B) Ehrlich chemotherapy 
C) Jenner vaccination D) Koch aseptic surgery Answer: D 
2) Which of the following is a scientific name? 
A) Streptococcus pyogenes 
B) Flesh-eating bacteria 
C) IGAS 
D) Streptococci 
E) Group A str...
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Add to cartWhich of the following pairs is mismatched? 
A) Pasteur proof of biogenesis B) Ehrlich chemotherapy 
C) Jenner vaccination D) Koch aseptic surgery Answer: D 
2) Which of the following is a scientific name? 
A) Streptococcus pyogenes 
B) Flesh-eating bacteria 
C) IGAS 
D) Streptococci 
E) Group A str...
Children, elderly people, and they disabled are considered to be ________ road users - especially vulnerable 
The second thing to be affected by alcohol is ___ - Reaction time 
Driving or operating under the influence means driving _____ - while intoxicated 
Your level of intoxication will be ...
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Add to cartChildren, elderly people, and they disabled are considered to be ________ road users - especially vulnerable 
The second thing to be affected by alcohol is ___ - Reaction time 
Driving or operating under the influence means driving _____ - while intoxicated 
Your level of intoxication will be ...
6 - a collision occurs every ___ seconds 
14 - a person is injured in a collision every ___ seconds 
14 - a person is killed in a collision every ___ minutes 
15-20 - young drivers between ___ and ___ years old accounted for only 6.4 percent of total drivers but made up 12 percent of all dri...
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Add to cart6 - a collision occurs every ___ seconds 
14 - a person is injured in a collision every ___ seconds 
14 - a person is killed in a collision every ___ minutes 
15-20 - young drivers between ___ and ___ years old accounted for only 6.4 percent of total drivers but made up 12 percent of all dri...
In Florida, any driver less than 21 years of age who is stopped by law enforcement and has a breath or blood alcohol level of .02 or higher will automatically have his or her driving privilege suspended for________________. 
 
a) 30 days 
b) 6 months 
c) 3 years 
d) 3 months - b) 6 months 
If you a...
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Add to cartIn Florida, any driver less than 21 years of age who is stopped by law enforcement and has a breath or blood alcohol level of .02 or higher will automatically have his or her driving privilege suspended for________________. 
 
a) 30 days 
b) 6 months 
c) 3 years 
d) 3 months - b) 6 months 
If you a...
Who needs to take this course? - All first time drivers in Florida. 
How long is this course? - 4 hours. 
This 4 hours Florida Traffic Law and Substance Abuse Education TLSAE course is also known as - • Florida learners permit 
• Drug and Alcohol Test course 
• Florida First Time Driver cou...
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Add to cartWho needs to take this course? - All first time drivers in Florida. 
How long is this course? - 4 hours. 
This 4 hours Florida Traffic Law and Substance Abuse Education TLSAE course is also known as - • Florida learners permit 
• Drug and Alcohol Test course 
• Florida First Time Driver cou...
Who needs to take this course? - All first time drivers in Florida. 
How long is this course? - 4 hours. 
This course includes - The Societal Concerns of drugs and alcohol, The Economic Concerns of drugs and alcohol, How drugs and alcohol affect a motorist. 
Where is this course's knowledge a...
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Add to cartWho needs to take this course? - All first time drivers in Florida. 
How long is this course? - 4 hours. 
This course includes - The Societal Concerns of drugs and alcohol, The Economic Concerns of drugs and alcohol, How drugs and alcohol affect a motorist. 
Where is this course's knowledge a...
the food and drug administration requires that all alcoholic beverages contain the same percentage of alcohol - false 
when is it okay to proceed after you have stopped for a school bus? - when the bus arm is withdrawn 
do not pass a ______ if its lights are flashing - school bus 
you are ____...
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Add to cartthe food and drug administration requires that all alcoholic beverages contain the same percentage of alcohol - false 
when is it okay to proceed after you have stopped for a school bus? - when the bus arm is withdrawn 
do not pass a ______ if its lights are flashing - school bus 
you are ____...
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Hydroplaning is best controlled when you speed up and make drastic control inputs. - False 
When you consider maintaining your car, you should check: - all of the above 
Developing appropriate attitudes depends on making a personal commitment to change attitudes that are unsafe. - True 
As the...
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Add to cartHydroplaning is best controlled when you speed up and make drastic control inputs. - False 
When you consider maintaining your car, you should check: - all of the above 
Developing appropriate attitudes depends on making a personal commitment to change attitudes that are unsafe. - True 
As the...
Henderson-Hasselbach Equation - pH = pKa + log ([A-] / [HA]) 
FMOC Chemical Synthesis - Used in synthesis of a growing amino acid chain to a polystyrene bead. FMOC is used as a protecting group on the N-terminus. 
Salting Out (Purification) - Changes soluble protein to solid precipitate. Pr...
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Add to cartHenderson-Hasselbach Equation - pH = pKa + log ([A-] / [HA]) 
FMOC Chemical Synthesis - Used in synthesis of a growing amino acid chain to a polystyrene bead. FMOC is used as a protecting group on the N-terminus. 
Salting Out (Purification) - Changes soluble protein to solid precipitate. Pr...
What is the D configuration of a sugar in a Fisher projection? - chyrol carbon furthest from the carboxyl group 
 
hydroxyl on right 
What is the L configuration of a sugar in a Fisher projection? - hydroxyl on left 
What is the difference between glycogen and amylopectin? - glycogen- has b...
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Add to cartWhat is the D configuration of a sugar in a Fisher projection? - chyrol carbon furthest from the carboxyl group 
 
hydroxyl on right 
What is the L configuration of a sugar in a Fisher projection? - hydroxyl on left 
What is the difference between glycogen and amylopectin? - glycogen- has b...
Buffer Order and Henderson Hasselbach - Water, Buffer, Salt, Base 
pH = pKa + log(A/HA) 
pKa decrease as temp increase so pH decrease 
Ramachandran plots - Φ = N-R 
ψ = C-R 
optimal angle to prevent steric hinderance 
Protein structure of a helix, B sheet, reverse turn - a: LEMARKHQ 
B: VICY...
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Add to cartBuffer Order and Henderson Hasselbach - Water, Buffer, Salt, Base 
pH = pKa + log(A/HA) 
pKa decrease as temp increase so pH decrease 
Ramachandran plots - Φ = N-R 
ψ = C-R 
optimal angle to prevent steric hinderance 
Protein structure of a helix, B sheet, reverse turn - a: LEMARKHQ 
B: VICY...
Each of the following subcellular structures contains DNA EXCEPT 
 
A. the nucleus. 
B. ribosomes. 
 C. chloroplasts. 
 D. mitochondria. - B 
In plant and animal cells, the three-dimensional integrity of the cell 
 is maintained, in part, by an internal network of filaments called 
 A. the cell ...
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Add to cartEach of the following subcellular structures contains DNA EXCEPT 
 
A. the nucleus. 
B. ribosomes. 
 C. chloroplasts. 
 D. mitochondria. - B 
In plant and animal cells, the three-dimensional integrity of the cell 
 is maintained, in part, by an internal network of filaments called 
 A. the cell ...
1. A weak acid, HA, has a pKa of 4.11. 
 a) At pH 7.11, what will the ratio of conjugate base to acid be? (Henderson-Hasselbach equation: pH=pKa + log [A-]/[HA]) 
b) Based on answer to "a," is there more HA or A- at that pH? 
c) At pH 2.11, what will the ratio of conjugate base to acid be? 
d) Bas...
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Add to cart1. A weak acid, HA, has a pKa of 4.11. 
 a) At pH 7.11, what will the ratio of conjugate base to acid be? (Henderson-Hasselbach equation: pH=pKa + log [A-]/[HA]) 
b) Based on answer to "a," is there more HA or A- at that pH? 
c) At pH 2.11, what will the ratio of conjugate base to acid be? 
d) Bas...
Which of the following statements made by a patient would lead the nurse to conclude that the patient understands risk factors for pulmonary embolism? 
 While on a long flight, I should get up and walk to stretch my legs every hour. 
 Resuming my birth control pills will lower my risk of cancer and ...
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Add to cartWhich of the following statements made by a patient would lead the nurse to conclude that the patient understands risk factors for pulmonary embolism? 
 While on a long flight, I should get up and walk to stretch my legs every hour. 
 Resuming my birth control pills will lower my risk of cancer and ...
Which dysrhythmia would be identified on an ECG/EKG six-second strip by a heart rate of 76 and a PR interval of 0.24? 
 tachycardia 
-degree atrioventricular block 
 bradycardia 
ional escape rhythm - B: First-degree atrioventricular block is diagnosed partially by an EKG showing a PR interval of gr...
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Add to cartWhich dysrhythmia would be identified on an ECG/EKG six-second strip by a heart rate of 76 and a PR interval of 0.24? 
 tachycardia 
-degree atrioventricular block 
 bradycardia 
ional escape rhythm - B: First-degree atrioventricular block is diagnosed partially by an EKG showing a PR interval of gr...
Right ventricular infarction (RVI) lead changes - II, III, AVF 
R ventricular infarction s/s - clear breath sounds, hypotension, JVD. 
R ventricular dilation and dec contractility>> dec preload and CO 
Reperfusion therapy standard - Within 60 min of ED arrival 
Common causes of PEA - H...
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Add to cartRight ventricular infarction (RVI) lead changes - II, III, AVF 
R ventricular infarction s/s - clear breath sounds, hypotension, JVD. 
R ventricular dilation and dec contractility>> dec preload and CO 
Reperfusion therapy standard - Within 60 min of ED arrival 
Common causes of PEA - H...
A patient complained of Epigastric pain has ST elevation in ECG leads II, III, and aVF. She is diagnosed with an inferior MI, and NTG is administered sublingually. Her blood pressure drops from 120/47 to 90/60 so the Provider order is a right-sided ECG while awaiting cardiology. Where is the correct...
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Add to cartA patient complained of Epigastric pain has ST elevation in ECG leads II, III, and aVF. She is diagnosed with an inferior MI, and NTG is administered sublingually. Her blood pressure drops from 120/47 to 90/60 so the Provider order is a right-sided ECG while awaiting cardiology. Where is the correct...
MAP calculation - [( 2xDBP) + SBP] / 3 
cushing's triad - widened pulse pressure, bradycardia, and irregular respirations 
(indicative of increased ICP) 
chronotropes - affect the heart rate at the SA node (cardizem) 
inotropes - affect contractility (dopamine) 
dromotropes - affect automatici...
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Add to cartMAP calculation - [( 2xDBP) + SBP] / 3 
cushing's triad - widened pulse pressure, bradycardia, and irregular respirations 
(indicative of increased ICP) 
chronotropes - affect the heart rate at the SA node (cardizem) 
inotropes - affect contractility (dopamine) 
dromotropes - affect automatici...
1. A pt presents to the ED experiencing an anterior ST segment elevation MI. The pts vital signs are normal. The hospital is not equipped with a cardaic catheterization lab. The pt can be transferred to a cardaic catheterization lab within 60 mins. Which of the following would you anticipate for thi...
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Add to cart1. A pt presents to the ED experiencing an anterior ST segment elevation MI. The pts vital signs are normal. The hospital is not equipped with a cardaic catheterization lab. The pt can be transferred to a cardaic catheterization lab within 60 mins. Which of the following would you anticipate for thi...
"Tearing chest pain" - Aortic dissection. Unequal upper extremity blood pressure readings (L arm > R arm with difference of 20mmHg systolic) 
ST elevation in V1, 2, 3, and 4 - Anterior myocardial infarction 
ST elevation leads I, AVL, V5, V6 - Lateral myocardial infarction 
Reciprocal ...
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Add to cart"Tearing chest pain" - Aortic dissection. Unequal upper extremity blood pressure readings (L arm > R arm with difference of 20mmHg systolic) 
ST elevation in V1, 2, 3, and 4 - Anterior myocardial infarction 
ST elevation leads I, AVL, V5, V6 - Lateral myocardial infarction 
Reciprocal ...
Thenurseunderstandsthatnursinginformaticsisrecognizedasaspecialtyareaofpracticeby which statement? 
 
1.	Researchprioritiesfornursinginformaticsincludethedevelopmentofastandardnursing language and the development of databases for clinical information. 
 
2.	Aformaleducationalprogramatthemaster'slev...
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Add to cartThenurseunderstandsthatnursinginformaticsisrecognizedasaspecialtyareaofpracticeby which statement? 
 
1.	Researchprioritiesfornursinginformaticsincludethedevelopmentofastandardnursing language and the development of databases for clinical information. 
 
2.	Aformaleducationalprogramatthemaster'slev...
How should a boat's registration number and validation decal be displayed? - on both sides of the bow 
What are the most important factors in choosing a PFD? - weight and chest size 
Information on the capacity plate - number of people, max weight, sometimes max horsepower 
Best way to ...
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Add to cartHow should a boat's registration number and validation decal be displayed? - on both sides of the bow 
What are the most important factors in choosing a PFD? - weight and chest size 
Information on the capacity plate - number of people, max weight, sometimes max horsepower 
Best way to ...
When must you signal before making a turn? - at least 100 feet before the intersection 
How close may you park to a stop sign? - 50 feet 
How close may you park to a corner? - 25 feet 
How close may you park to a fire hydrant? - 10 feet 
What is the stopping distance on a dry road at 50 m.p....
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Add to cartWhen must you signal before making a turn? - at least 100 feet before the intersection 
How close may you park to a stop sign? - 50 feet 
How close may you park to a corner? - 25 feet 
How close may you park to a fire hydrant? - 10 feet 
What is the stopping distance on a dry road at 50 m.p....
What is the age that you MUST wear a PFD at all times? - 12 or younger 
How old must you be to receive a NJ boat safety certificate? - 13 years old 
How old must you be to operate a Personal Water Craft 
(PWC)? - 16 years old 
True or False: Anyone age 13 or older can operate a powerboat that...
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Add to cartWhat is the age that you MUST wear a PFD at all times? - 12 or younger 
How old must you be to receive a NJ boat safety certificate? - 13 years old 
How old must you be to operate a Personal Water Craft 
(PWC)? - 16 years old 
True or False: Anyone age 13 or older can operate a powerboat that...
Left side of the boat - Port 
Right side of the boat - Starboard 
Front of boat - Bow 
Back of boat - Stern 
Body of boat - Hull 
Upper edge of a boat's side - Gunwale 
Maximum width of a vessel - Beam 
Distance from water to lowest point of boat where water could come on board - Fr...
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Add to cartLeft side of the boat - Port 
Right side of the boat - Starboard 
Front of boat - Bow 
Back of boat - Stern 
Body of boat - Hull 
Upper edge of a boat's side - Gunwale 
Maximum width of a vessel - Beam 
Distance from water to lowest point of boat where water could come on board - Fr...
1) A capacity plate shows the: - Maximum horsepower and weight allowed 
2) What is the minimum height of the state registration numbers that are displayed on a boat? - 3" 
3) If a boat transfers ownership, is destroyed, lost, stolen or recovered, the owner must notify the agency which issued ...
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Add to cart1) A capacity plate shows the: - Maximum horsepower and weight allowed 
2) What is the minimum height of the state registration numbers that are displayed on a boat? - 3" 
3) If a boat transfers ownership, is destroyed, lost, stolen or recovered, the owner must notify the agency which issued ...
How should a vessels registration number and validation decal be displayed? - On both sides of the bow of the boat 
What is most important when selecting the right PFD for a passenger? - A passengers body weight and chest size 
What important safety information is found on a boats capacity plate...
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Add to cartHow should a vessels registration number and validation decal be displayed? - On both sides of the bow of the boat 
What is most important when selecting the right PFD for a passenger? - A passengers body weight and chest size 
What important safety information is found on a boats capacity plate...
CHAPTER ONE - KNOW YOUR BOAT 
The port side of the vessel is the _______ side. - Left 
The starboard side of the vessel is the _______ side. - Right 
Basic types of vessel hulls can be described as ______. - Displacement & Planing 
Three basic hull shapes: - I. Round bottom 
II. Flat bottom 
II...
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Add to cartCHAPTER ONE - KNOW YOUR BOAT 
The port side of the vessel is the _______ side. - Left 
The starboard side of the vessel is the _______ side. - Right 
Basic types of vessel hulls can be described as ______. - Displacement & Planing 
Three basic hull shapes: - I. Round bottom 
II. Flat bottom 
II...
bow - Front of a vessel 
cleat - Metal fitting on which a rope can be fastened 
gunwale - Upper edge of vessel's side 
hull - Body of a vessel 
port - Left side of a vessel 
propeller - Rotates and powers a boat forward or backward 
starboard - Right side of a vessel 
stern - Rear of a vess...
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Add to cartbow - Front of a vessel 
cleat - Metal fitting on which a rope can be fastened 
gunwale - Upper edge of vessel's side 
hull - Body of a vessel 
port - Left side of a vessel 
propeller - Rotates and powers a boat forward or backward 
starboard - Right side of a vessel 
stern - Rear of a vess...
Bow - front of a ship 
Cleat - Metal fitting on which a rope can be fastened 
Gunwale - the upper edge of the side of a boat 
Hull - Body of a vessel 
Port - Left side of a vessel 
Starboard - right side of a vessel 
Stern - Rear of a vessel 
Beam - Maximum width of a vessel 
Freeboa...
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Add to cartBow - front of a ship 
Cleat - Metal fitting on which a rope can be fastened 
Gunwale - the upper edge of the side of a boat 
Hull - Body of a vessel 
Port - Left side of a vessel 
Starboard - right side of a vessel 
Stern - Rear of a vessel 
Beam - Maximum width of a vessel 
Freeboa...
What two things does the capacity plate list? - The maximum NUMBER of people and amount of WEIGHT the boat can carry SAFELY 
14. What's one thing you should do before you go on a trip? - CHECK OIL level before each outing. 
16. What should you do when fueling your vessel? - TURN OFF the engin...
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Add to cartWhat two things does the capacity plate list? - The maximum NUMBER of people and amount of WEIGHT the boat can carry SAFELY 
14. What's one thing you should do before you go on a trip? - CHECK OIL level before each outing. 
16. What should you do when fueling your vessel? - TURN OFF the engin...
The port side of a vessel is the ___ side. - Left 
The stern of a vessel is the ___ of the vessel. - Rear 
Basic types of vessel hulls can be described as ___. 
a) moving and non-moving 
b) displacement and planing 
c) rough and smooth 
d) narrow and wide - b) displacement and planing 
Name three...
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Add to cartThe port side of a vessel is the ___ side. - Left 
The stern of a vessel is the ___ of the vessel. - Rear 
Basic types of vessel hulls can be described as ___. 
a) moving and non-moving 
b) displacement and planing 
c) rough and smooth 
d) narrow and wide - b) displacement and planing 
Name three...
Which of the following is the SAFEST use of a life jacket or PFD? - Worn at all times when in or around the water 
Which of the following will most reduce the chances of fatalities while on or around the water? - Wearing a properly fitted life jacket at all times 
Which of the following is the...
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Add to cartWhich of the following is the SAFEST use of a life jacket or PFD? - Worn at all times when in or around the water 
Which of the following will most reduce the chances of fatalities while on or around the water? - Wearing a properly fitted life jacket at all times 
Which of the following is the...
how should vessel's registration number and validation decal be displayed? - both sides of the bow of the boat 
what is most important when selecting the right PFD for a passenger? - body weight and chest size 
according to Alabama law, what operators are required to have completed an approved ...
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Add to carthow should vessel's registration number and validation decal be displayed? - both sides of the bow of the boat 
what is most important when selecting the right PFD for a passenger? - body weight and chest size 
according to Alabama law, what operators are required to have completed an approved ...
Why is it important to always be wearing a personal flotation device (PFD) when in or around the water? - C. A PFD takes some time to fit properly, especially in an emergency 
Which of the following will most reduce the chances of fatalities while on or around the water? - B. Wearing a properly ...
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Add to cartWhy is it important to always be wearing a personal flotation device (PFD) when in or around the water? - C. A PFD takes some time to fit properly, especially in an emergency 
Which of the following will most reduce the chances of fatalities while on or around the water? - B. Wearing a properly ...
Which of the following is a requirement for all motorboats in Pennsylvania? - They must be registered. 
What information does a boat's capacity plate include? - The maximum weight capacity of persons, motor, and gear. 
When is a canoe more likely to capsize? - When it is overloaded. 
When mus...
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Add to cartWhich of the following is a requirement for all motorboats in Pennsylvania? - They must be registered. 
What information does a boat's capacity plate include? - The maximum weight capacity of persons, motor, and gear. 
When is a canoe more likely to capsize? - When it is overloaded. 
When mus...
When must you signal before making a turn? - at least 100 feet before the intersection 
How close may you park to a stop sign? - 50 feet 
How close may you park to a corner? - 25 feet 
How close may you park to a fire hydrant? - 10 feet 
What is the stopping distance on a dry road at 50 m.p....
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Add to cartWhen must you signal before making a turn? - at least 100 feet before the intersection 
How close may you park to a stop sign? - 50 feet 
How close may you park to a corner? - 25 feet 
How close may you park to a fire hydrant? - 10 feet 
What is the stopping distance on a dry road at 50 m.p....
When must you signal before making a turn? - At least 100 feet before the intersection 
How close may you park to a stop sign? - 50 feet 
How close may you park to a corner? - 25 feet 
How close may you park to a fire hydrant? - 10 feet 
What is the stopping distance on a dry road at 50 m.p....
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Add to cartWhen must you signal before making a turn? - At least 100 feet before the intersection 
How close may you park to a stop sign? - 50 feet 
How close may you park to a corner? - 25 feet 
How close may you park to a fire hydrant? - 10 feet 
What is the stopping distance on a dry road at 50 m.p....
How many days is a civil summons valid for? 
(Civil Process) - 60 days 
How can you serve a subpoena to testify? 
(Civil Process) - In person, Phone, Certified mail 
When serving a summons to a city, who can accept the service? 
(Civil Process) - City manager, Mayor, City clerk 
What does POPA...
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Add to cartHow many days is a civil summons valid for? 
(Civil Process) - 60 days 
How can you serve a subpoena to testify? 
(Civil Process) - In person, Phone, Certified mail 
When serving a summons to a city, who can accept the service? 
(Civil Process) - City manager, Mayor, City clerk 
What does POPA...
List four way to submit criminal fingerprint cards and final disposition reports to the Identification Section of the State Bureau of Investigation (SBI) - First Class Mail 
Courier Service 
In Person 
Electronic Transmission (live-scan) 
The most reliable form of identification - fingerprints...
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Add to cartList four way to submit criminal fingerprint cards and final disposition reports to the Identification Section of the State Bureau of Investigation (SBI) - First Class Mail 
Courier Service 
In Person 
Electronic Transmission (live-scan) 
The most reliable form of identification - fingerprints...
State the function and purpose of civil process. - Primary function: 1. Giving notice 2. preserving the status quo. 3. Providing remedies for parties. 4. Enforcing decisions of the courts. 
State the purpose of civil process - Civil actions, there is no arrest or issued citation. Non- criminal a...
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Add to cartState the function and purpose of civil process. - Primary function: 1. Giving notice 2. preserving the status quo. 3. Providing remedies for parties. 4. Enforcing decisions of the courts. 
State the purpose of civil process - Civil actions, there is no arrest or issued citation. Non- criminal a...
True or false 
Heavy alc consumption contributes to coronary heart disease - False 
every workout should follow these steps in the order listed - warm up, work out, cool down, stretch 
True or false 
aerobic exercise is preformed at near maximum intensity - false 
an officer attempting to work...
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Add to cartTrue or false 
Heavy alc consumption contributes to coronary heart disease - False 
every workout should follow these steps in the order listed - warm up, work out, cool down, stretch 
True or false 
aerobic exercise is preformed at near maximum intensity - false 
an officer attempting to work...
Primary Risk Factors for Coronary Heart Disease (*Physical Fitness*) - 1) Abnormal Blood Cholesterol 
2) High Blood Pressure (Hypertension) 
3) Tobacco Smoking 
4) Sedentary Lifestyle/Physical Inactivity 
3 Primary Physical Disablers (*Physical Fitness*) - 1) Cardiovascular Disease (CVD) 
2) Low...
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Add to cartPrimary Risk Factors for Coronary Heart Disease (*Physical Fitness*) - 1) Abnormal Blood Cholesterol 
2) High Blood Pressure (Hypertension) 
3) Tobacco Smoking 
4) Sedentary Lifestyle/Physical Inactivity 
3 Primary Physical Disablers (*Physical Fitness*) - 1) Cardiovascular Disease (CVD) 
2) Low...
Crime Fighter - -warrior mindset 
-citizens are the enemy 
-emphasis on speed and finality 
-"conveyor belt" 
Public Servant - -due process model 
-finality is not a priority 
Define Morals - principles of right and wrong 
Define Ethics - the discipline of determining good and evil...
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Add to cartCrime Fighter - -warrior mindset 
-citizens are the enemy 
-emphasis on speed and finality 
-"conveyor belt" 
Public Servant - -due process model 
-finality is not a priority 
Define Morals - principles of right and wrong 
Define Ethics - the discipline of determining good and evil...
Define Human Trafficking - maintaining the labor or services of another through the use of force, fraud or coercion 
Federal definition of human trafficking - The Traffic Victim Protection Act (TVPA) strengthened federal criminal laws that prohibit human trafficking, created immigration relief f...
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Add to cartDefine Human Trafficking - maintaining the labor or services of another through the use of force, fraud or coercion 
Federal definition of human trafficking - The Traffic Victim Protection Act (TVPA) strengthened federal criminal laws that prohibit human trafficking, created immigration relief f...
List the primary risk factors that contribute to coronary heart disease and at least three secondary risk factors. - Abnormal Blood Cholesterol 
High Blood Pressure (hypertension) 
Tobacco smoking 
Sedentary lifestyle/physical inactivity 
List the secondary risk factors that contribute to coronary...
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Add to cartList the primary risk factors that contribute to coronary heart disease and at least three secondary risk factors. - Abnormal Blood Cholesterol 
High Blood Pressure (hypertension) 
Tobacco smoking 
Sedentary lifestyle/physical inactivity 
List the secondary risk factors that contribute to coronary...
How many times will a victim leave on average in a domestic violence relationship? - 7 (seven) times 
How many officers should you have respond to a domestic violence call? - 2 (two), at the very least 
in domestic violence situations victims call the police because? - they are scared or in im...
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Add to cartHow many times will a victim leave on average in a domestic violence relationship? - 7 (seven) times 
How many officers should you have respond to a domestic violence call? - 2 (two), at the very least 
in domestic violence situations victims call the police because? - they are scared or in im...
Good telephone etiquette - a skill every emergency service agency must master 
Customer service - Every caller, whether emergency or non-emergency, must be viewed as a customer 
Decreased customer satisfaction - means increased complaints and negative results for all. 
Telephone etiquette - ...
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Add to cartGood telephone etiquette - a skill every emergency service agency must master 
Customer service - Every caller, whether emergency or non-emergency, must be viewed as a customer 
Decreased customer satisfaction - means increased complaints and negative results for all. 
Telephone etiquette - ...
First Amendment - Freedom of speech, religion, press, assembly and petition 
Second amendment - Right to bear arms 
Third amendment - Prevents quartering of troops 
Fourth amendment - Prohibits unreasonable search and seizure 
Fifth amendment - Protects against double jeopardy, self-incrim...
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Add to cartFirst Amendment - Freedom of speech, religion, press, assembly and petition 
Second amendment - Right to bear arms 
Third amendment - Prevents quartering of troops 
Fourth amendment - Prohibits unreasonable search and seizure 
Fifth amendment - Protects against double jeopardy, self-incrim...
5 Major phases of LEO and court action involved in traffic enforcement - Physical Arrest 
Traffic Citation 
Issuance of citation for infraction 
Written warning 
Verbal Warning 
4 Categories of Visual cues from NHTSA DWI detection guide - Problems maintaining proper lane position (weaving, drift...
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Add to cart5 Major phases of LEO and court action involved in traffic enforcement - Physical Arrest 
Traffic Citation 
Issuance of citation for infraction 
Written warning 
Verbal Warning 
4 Categories of Visual cues from NHTSA DWI detection guide - Problems maintaining proper lane position (weaving, drift...
What is the average distance for a siren to be heard? - 125 ft 
Should you consider the suspects pscychological factors in a pursuit? - No 
How much detail should you use in a pusuit? - Basic, you do not need to go into deep detail 
When is the best time to chase? - Broad daylight 
When chec...
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Add to cartWhat is the average distance for a siren to be heard? - 125 ft 
Should you consider the suspects pscychological factors in a pursuit? - No 
How much detail should you use in a pusuit? - Basic, you do not need to go into deep detail 
When is the best time to chase? - Broad daylight 
When chec...
Our law defines a criminal action as..? - (1) an action prosecuted by the State as a party, against a person charged with a public offense, for the punishment thereof, or 
(2) an action prosecuted by the State, at the instance of an individual, to prevent an apprehended crime against his person o...
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Add to cartOur law defines a criminal action as..? - (1) an action prosecuted by the State as a party, against a person charged with a public offense, for the punishment thereof, or 
(2) an action prosecuted by the State, at the instance of an individual, to prevent an apprehended crime against his person o...
SIPDE - Search 
Identify 
Predict 
Decide 
Execute 
Search - Position in traffic 
Searching and scanning traffic scene (2 seconds following, 3 if rough conditions) 
Identify - Signs, signals, and roadway markings 
the roadway 
motorized vehicles 
non-motorized roadway users 
Predict - antici...
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Add to cartSIPDE - Search 
Identify 
Predict 
Decide 
Execute 
Search - Position in traffic 
Searching and scanning traffic scene (2 seconds following, 3 if rough conditions) 
Identify - Signs, signals, and roadway markings 
the roadway 
motorized vehicles 
non-motorized roadway users 
Predict - antici...
What are the components of EMS systems? - Reporting, Dispatch, First Response, EMS Response, Hospital Care 
Is it a misdemeanor or felony to practice medicine without a license in NC? - Misdemeanor 
If an officer is sued, what must the plaintiff prove? - -gross negligence 
-wanton conduct 
-in...
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Add to cartWhat are the components of EMS systems? - Reporting, Dispatch, First Response, EMS Response, Hospital Care 
Is it a misdemeanor or felony to practice medicine without a license in NC? - Misdemeanor 
If an officer is sued, what must the plaintiff prove? - -gross negligence 
-wanton conduct 
-in...
How do you promote communication with a resident? - asking OPEN ENDED questions- "How are you feeling?" (ch.6) 
A resident wants to use the commode, but she needs help... what do you do? - Use a gait belt 
What is the temperature of a TEPID bath? - 80-93 `F 
What is the temperature of a SITZ...
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Add to cartHow do you promote communication with a resident? - asking OPEN ENDED questions- "How are you feeling?" (ch.6) 
A resident wants to use the commode, but she needs help... what do you do? - Use a gait belt 
What is the temperature of a TEPID bath? - 80-93 `F 
What is the temperature of a SITZ...
What part of the hand washing procedure gets rid of germs/pathogens? - Friction 
When feeding a resident, who chooses what he or she is fed next? - The resident 
What is it called when you see someone else commit an unsafe action, or harm or put a resident in danger and you do not report it? - ...
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Add to cartWhat part of the hand washing procedure gets rid of germs/pathogens? - Friction 
When feeding a resident, who chooses what he or she is fed next? - The resident 
What is it called when you see someone else commit an unsafe action, or harm or put a resident in danger and you do not report it? - ...
When a resident refuses to let the nursing assistant take her blood pressure, the nursing assistant should - Report this to the nurse 
One task commonly assigned to nursing assistants is - Helping residents with toileting/elimination needs 
A nursing assistant may share a resident's medical inf...
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Add to cartWhen a resident refuses to let the nursing assistant take her blood pressure, the nursing assistant should - Report this to the nurse 
One task commonly assigned to nursing assistants is - Helping residents with toileting/elimination needs 
A nursing assistant may share a resident's medical inf...
Accountable - answerable for one's actions 
activities of daily living (ADLs) - personal daily care task, including bathing, skin, nail, and hair care, walking, eating and drinking, mouth care, dressing, transferring, and toileting 
acute care - 24-hour skilled care for short-term illnesses o...
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Add to cartAccountable - answerable for one's actions 
activities of daily living (ADLs) - personal daily care task, including bathing, skin, nail, and hair care, walking, eating and drinking, mouth care, dressing, transferring, and toileting 
acute care - 24-hour skilled care for short-term illnesses o...
The nurse asks you to ambulate a patient BID during your shift. This means you will ambulate the patient ____ times. 
 
a. Four 
b. Three 
c. Two 
 d. One - C. two 
Sometimes the best response for a nursing assistant is to assure the resident you are listening. Which of these behaviors is the best...
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Add to cartThe nurse asks you to ambulate a patient BID during your shift. This means you will ambulate the patient ____ times. 
 
a. Four 
b. Three 
c. Two 
 d. One - C. two 
Sometimes the best response for a nursing assistant is to assure the resident you are listening. Which of these behaviors is the best...
Which of the following may cause primary respiratory alkalosis? - Fever 
A quadriplegic male is experiencing difficulty breathing and restlessness. His skin is warm and his urine is dark, yellow and cloudy. Vital signs are BP 86/68, P-128, R-24, temp 101.2 F (38degrees C). Which type of shock shou...
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Add to cartWhich of the following may cause primary respiratory alkalosis? - Fever 
A quadriplegic male is experiencing difficulty breathing and restlessness. His skin is warm and his urine is dark, yellow and cloudy. Vital signs are BP 86/68, P-128, R-24, temp 101.2 F (38degrees C). Which type of shock shou...
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