Package deal
Nursing questions for the best 200
Nursing 1014 package
[Show more]Nursing 1014 package
[Show more]The LPN observes an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) taking a 
client's blood pressure with a cuff that is too small, but the blood pressure 
reading obtained is within the client's usual range. What action is most 
important for the nurse to implement? - ans ----Reassess the client's blo...
Preview 2 out of 7 pages
Add to cartThe LPN observes an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) taking a 
client's blood pressure with a cuff that is too small, but the blood pressure 
reading obtained is within the client's usual range. What action is most 
important for the nurse to implement? - ans ----Reassess the client's blo...
The most critical course of action in restoration during is to _______ an begin __________ as soon as possible - ans ----respond quickly & mitigation 
 
All restorers should follow the standard of care for the water restoration profession developed by the restoration industry entitled the IICRC ...
Preview 2 out of 14 pages
Add to cartThe most critical course of action in restoration during is to _______ an begin __________ as soon as possible - ans ----respond quickly & mitigation 
 
All restorers should follow the standard of care for the water restoration profession developed by the restoration industry entitled the IICRC ...
Wearing PPE on a sewage damaged project shall be done because it - ans ----Is mandotary due to natural law or regulatory requirement 
 
technicians Should clean and dry affected materials because it is - ans ----component of the accepted standard of care, but not mandatory. 
 
If something i...
Preview 2 out of 8 pages
Add to cartWearing PPE on a sewage damaged project shall be done because it - ans ----Is mandotary due to natural law or regulatory requirement 
 
technicians Should clean and dry affected materials because it is - ans ----component of the accepted standard of care, but not mandatory. 
 
If something i...
what is the most critical course of action in restorative drying - ans ----to respond quickly 
 
what is the standard care for water restoration professionals developed by the restoration industry entitled - ans ----IICRC S500 
 
to help protect technicians from the many hazards associated w...
Preview 2 out of 9 pages
Add to cartwhat is the most critical course of action in restorative drying - ans ----to respond quickly 
 
what is the standard care for water restoration professionals developed by the restoration industry entitled - ans ----IICRC S500 
 
to help protect technicians from the many hazards associated w...
Psychrometry - ans ----Study of the relationship between air, humidity, and temperature and their effects on materials and comfort levels 
 
Evaporation - ans ----Process of changing a liquid to a vapor 
 
Dehumidification - ans ----Reducing moisture content in the air 
 
Dry Bulb Temper...
Preview 2 out of 5 pages
Add to cartPsychrometry - ans ----Study of the relationship between air, humidity, and temperature and their effects on materials and comfort levels 
 
Evaporation - ans ----Process of changing a liquid to a vapor 
 
Dehumidification - ans ----Reducing moisture content in the air 
 
Dry Bulb Temper...
Vinyl wall covering affects drying process because it is a vapor retarder - ans ----True 
 
Carpet can be easily damaged while it is wet. If it delaminates the most likely solution is - ans ----Recommend removal and replacement 
 
Measures how easily a vapor can pass through a material - ...
Preview 1 out of 4 pages
Add to cartVinyl wall covering affects drying process because it is a vapor retarder - ans ----True 
 
Carpet can be easily damaged while it is wet. If it delaminates the most likely solution is - ans ----Recommend removal and replacement 
 
Measures how easily a vapor can pass through a material - ...
The most important aspect to any job is: - ans ----Risk/Hazard assessment for the safety of all individuals involved 
 
Safety in water damage restoration includes: - ans ----Engineering controls, Immunizations from a Primary care physician, and PPE 
 
Employers must provide which of the fol...
Preview 2 out of 10 pages
Add to cartThe most important aspect to any job is: - ans ----Risk/Hazard assessment for the safety of all individuals involved 
 
Safety in water damage restoration includes: - ans ----Engineering controls, Immunizations from a Primary care physician, and PPE 
 
Employers must provide which of the fol...
#1. During the inspection process, restorers shall make a reasonable effort to - ans ----C. identify and address potential safety hazards 
 
#2. A significant amount of water absorption and evaporation load where wet porous materials represent ~5% to ~40% of combined ceiling, walls, and floori...
Preview 2 out of 9 pages
Add to cart#1. During the inspection process, restorers shall make a reasonable effort to - ans ----C. identify and address potential safety hazards 
 
#2. A significant amount of water absorption and evaporation load where wet porous materials represent ~5% to ~40% of combined ceiling, walls, and floori...
ANSI/IICRC S-500 Water Damage Standards - ans ----What document dictates the Standards for the Water Damage Restoration Industry? 
 
Work authorization - ans ----What needs to be signed before restoration begins? 
 
To reduce drying times - ans ----Why do we extract water from carpet mul...
Preview 2 out of 9 pages
Add to cartANSI/IICRC S-500 Water Damage Standards - ans ----What document dictates the Standards for the Water Damage Restoration Industry? 
 
Work authorization - ans ----What needs to be signed before restoration begins? 
 
To reduce drying times - ans ----Why do we extract water from carpet mul...
Triggers come standard with NPSP, and TDTM is the framework for managing them. - correct answers--In practice, TDTM has several uses. TDTM lets you: 
 
Disable specific pieces of code 
Build your own custom code that works in conjunction with NPSP 
Control the order in which the code executes 
 
Di...
Preview 3 out of 16 pages
Add to cartTriggers come standard with NPSP, and TDTM is the framework for managing them. - correct answers--In practice, TDTM has several uses. TDTM lets you: 
 
Disable specific pieces of code 
Build your own custom code that works in conjunction with NPSP 
Control the order in which the code executes 
 
Di...
Features only available in the household account model - correct answers--1. address management 
2. Customizable rollups 
3. NPSP data import utiity 
 
What sophisticated features does the household account model support? - correct answers--Contact management for multiple household members 
Add...
Preview 2 out of 9 pages
Add to cartFeatures only available in the household account model - correct answers--1. address management 
2. Customizable rollups 
3. NPSP data import utiity 
 
What sophisticated features does the household account model support? - correct answers--Contact management for multiple household members 
Add...
When would you use accounting subledger? - -correct answer--mismatch between your accounting system and SFDC 
 
What does Accounting Subledger do? - -correct answer--Consolidates data between your Salesforce CRM and your account system. Custom mappings allow data to be exported to almost any account...
Preview 2 out of 8 pages
Add to cartWhen would you use accounting subledger? - -correct answer--mismatch between your accounting system and SFDC 
 
What does Accounting Subledger do? - -correct answer--Consolidates data between your Salesforce CRM and your account system. Custom mappings allow data to be exported to almost any account...
A nonprofit organization created a custom Opportunity name for all organization donations.Which two considerations should the consultant discuss with the organization? Choose 2 answers: 
 
A. The organization should change existing Opportunities to the new naming convention through an upsert. 
B. Th...
Preview 2 out of 13 pages
Add to cartA nonprofit organization created a custom Opportunity name for all organization donations.Which two considerations should the consultant discuss with the organization? Choose 2 answers: 
 
A. The organization should change existing Opportunities to the new naming convention through an upsert. 
B. Th...
5 basic phases to a SF Implementation - ans ---Plan & Prepare 
-Setup & Customize 
-Test & Deploy SF 
-Drive Adoption 
-Continuously Improve 
 
Plan & Prepare: What general roles should be on the team? - ans ---Executive Sponsor 
-Business Process Owner 
-System Admin 
-Data Analyst 
-Champi...
Preview 1 out of 3 pages
Add to cart5 basic phases to a SF Implementation - ans ---Plan & Prepare 
-Setup & Customize 
-Test & Deploy SF 
-Drive Adoption 
-Continuously Improve 
 
Plan & Prepare: What general roles should be on the team? - ans ---Executive Sponsor 
-Business Process Owner 
-System Admin 
-Data Analyst 
-Champi...
What are the two major categories of lower respiratory tract disorders. - ans --Chronic 
 
obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and restrictive pulmonary disease 
 
COPD is caused by airway obstruction which causes.... - ans --increased airway resistance of airflow to lung tissues. 
 
cause...
Preview 2 out of 5 pages
Add to cartWhat are the two major categories of lower respiratory tract disorders. - ans --Chronic 
 
obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and restrictive pulmonary disease 
 
COPD is caused by airway obstruction which causes.... - ans --increased airway resistance of airflow to lung tissues. 
 
cause...
the belief (theory) that it was the right of the United States to occupy all of America from Sea to Shining Sea! - correct answer--Manifest Destiny 
 
The Census of 1890 announced the official end of the American Frontier (Frederick Jackson Turner) - correct answer--Turner's Frontier Thesis 
 
...
Preview 3 out of 18 pages
Add to cartthe belief (theory) that it was the right of the United States to occupy all of America from Sea to Shining Sea! - correct answer--Manifest Destiny 
 
The Census of 1890 announced the official end of the American Frontier (Frederick Jackson Turner) - correct answer--Turner's Frontier Thesis 
 
...
Cornelius Vanderbilt - ans --Wealthy Railroad baron, a true symbol of the "Gilded Age," known as the Commodore. A college in Tennessee bears his name. 
 
Andrew Carnegie - ans --owned U.S. Steel and used Vertical integration to monopolize the steel industry. Gave millions to build librarie...
Preview 3 out of 20 pages
Add to cartCornelius Vanderbilt - ans --Wealthy Railroad baron, a true symbol of the "Gilded Age," known as the Commodore. A college in Tennessee bears his name. 
 
Andrew Carnegie - ans --owned U.S. Steel and used Vertical integration to monopolize the steel industry. Gave millions to build librarie...
Belief (theory) that it was the right of the United States to occupy all of America from Sea to Shining Sea! - ans --Manifest Destiny 
 
Historical argument prompted by the Census of 1890, which announced the official end of the American Frontier, the institution that always made America great. ...
Preview 2 out of 13 pages
Add to cartBelief (theory) that it was the right of the United States to occupy all of America from Sea to Shining Sea! - ans --Manifest Destiny 
 
Historical argument prompted by the Census of 1890, which announced the official end of the American Frontier, the institution that always made America great. ...
general principles of nursing informatics - -correct answer--essential skills related to informatics deemed appropriate 
 
nursing informatics - -correct answer--integrates nursing science with multiple information and analytical sciences to identify define manage and communicate data information kn...
Preview 1 out of 4 pages
Add to cartgeneral principles of nursing informatics - -correct answer--essential skills related to informatics deemed appropriate 
 
nursing informatics - -correct answer--integrates nursing science with multiple information and analytical sciences to identify define manage and communicate data information kn...
knowledge - -correct answer--The awareness and understanding of a set of information and the ways that information can be made useful to support a specific task or reach a decision. 
 
widsom - -correct answer--knowledge applied in a practical way or translated into actions: the use of knowledge and...
Preview 2 out of 5 pages
Add to cartknowledge - -correct answer--The awareness and understanding of a set of information and the ways that information can be made useful to support a specific task or reach a decision. 
 
widsom - -correct answer--knowledge applied in a practical way or translated into actions: the use of knowledge and...
Risk mitigation - ans --a process whereby the organization takes concrete actions against risks, such as implementing controls and developing a disaster recovery plan 
 
Ethical - ans --(adj.) Having to do with morals, values, right and wrong; in accordance with standards of right conduct; r...
Preview 2 out of 5 pages
Add to cartRisk mitigation - ans --a process whereby the organization takes concrete actions against risks, such as implementing controls and developing a disaster recovery plan 
 
Ethical - ans --(adj.) Having to do with morals, values, right and wrong; in accordance with standards of right conduct; r...
Ethical Decision Making - ans --The process of making informed choices about ethical dilemmas based on a set of standards differentiating right from wrong, 
The decision making reflects an understanding of the principles and standards ethical decision making, as well as philosophical approaches...
Preview 2 out of 6 pages
Add to cartEthical Decision Making - ans --The process of making informed choices about ethical dilemmas based on a set of standards differentiating right from wrong, 
The decision making reflects an understanding of the principles and standards ethical decision making, as well as philosophical approaches...
Nursing informatics - ans --Integrates nursing science, computer science, and information science, cognitive science 
 
Nursing informatics - ans --Ethical application of knowledge, to provide services and interventions, to maintain, enhance or restore health, to acquire, generate and dissem...
Preview 2 out of 7 pages
Add to cartNursing informatics - ans --Integrates nursing science, computer science, and information science, cognitive science 
 
Nursing informatics - ans --Ethical application of knowledge, to provide services and interventions, to maintain, enhance or restore health, to acquire, generate and dissem...
Smart documentation forms - correct answer--forms that are tailored based on patient data to emphasize data elements pertinent to the patient's conditions and healthcare needs. 
 
Order sets, care plans and protocols - correct answer--Structured approaches to encourage correct and efficient o...
Preview 2 out of 12 pages
Add to cartSmart documentation forms - correct answer--forms that are tailored based on patient data to emphasize data elements pertinent to the patient's conditions and healthcare needs. 
 
Order sets, care plans and protocols - correct answer--Structured approaches to encourage correct and efficient o...
CDS - ans --provides knowledge and person- 
specific information to enhance 
healthcare 
○ Successful implementation: 
leadership, executive support, interprofessional teams representing stakeholders most impacted by changes to workflow 
○ Qualitative evaluation strategy after CDS 
-groups...
Preview 3 out of 22 pages
Add to cartCDS - ans --provides knowledge and person- 
specific information to enhance 
healthcare 
○ Successful implementation: 
leadership, executive support, interprofessional teams representing stakeholders most impacted by changes to workflow 
○ Qualitative evaluation strategy after CDS 
-groups...
clinical decision support (CDS) - ans --component that "provides clinicians, staff, patients, or other individuals with knowledge and person-specific information, intelligently filtered or presented at appropriate times, to enhance health and healthcare. 
The quality of patient care is positive...
Preview 1 out of 3 pages
Add to cartclinical decision support (CDS) - ans --component that "provides clinicians, staff, patients, or other individuals with knowledge and person-specific information, intelligently filtered or presented at appropriate times, to enhance health and healthcare. 
The quality of patient care is positive...
Definition of Contribution - ans --the sum of money that remains after all direct or variable costs have been taken away from the sales revenue of a product - this surplus can contribute to paying the firm's fixed costs of production 
 
Types of contribution - ans --- total contribution 
-...
Preview 1 out of 3 pages
Add to cartDefinition of Contribution - ans --the sum of money that remains after all direct or variable costs have been taken away from the sales revenue of a product - this surplus can contribute to paying the firm's fixed costs of production 
 
Types of contribution - ans --- total contribution 
-...
An example of an indirect cost is: 
 
A. Cost Center 
B. Information technology 
C. Nursing staff 
D. Delivery of Care - correct answers--Ans: Book says 'A', but probably should be 'B" 
INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY 
 
Page 49-50 
For costs other than personnel costs, the nurse manager will have to c...
Preview 2 out of 11 pages
Add to cartAn example of an indirect cost is: 
 
A. Cost Center 
B. Information technology 
C. Nursing staff 
D. Delivery of Care - correct answers--Ans: Book says 'A', but probably should be 'B" 
INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY 
 
Page 49-50 
For costs other than personnel costs, the nurse manager will have to c...
What is a global business plan? - -correct answer--aims to provide guidance and structure on continuing basis for managing the organisation in a rapidly changing, hyper-competitive environment 
 
What is an opportunity assessment plan? - -correct answer--- not a business plan 
- focuses on idea and ...
Preview 2 out of 5 pages
Add to cartWhat is a global business plan? - -correct answer--aims to provide guidance and structure on continuing basis for managing the organisation in a rapidly changing, hyper-competitive environment 
 
What is an opportunity assessment plan? - -correct answer--- not a business plan 
- focuses on idea and ...
All torch operators, an oxigen-fuel torch using any amount of oxigen and flamable gas and fire guards must have a current - ans --Certificate of Fitness 
 
The Certificate of Fitness holder - ans --must regulate the pressure and flow of oxygen and natural gas to each torch. 
 
if the torch o...
Preview 2 out of 8 pages
Add to cartAll torch operators, an oxigen-fuel torch using any amount of oxigen and flamable gas and fire guards must have a current - ans --Certificate of Fitness 
 
The Certificate of Fitness holder - ans --must regulate the pressure and flow of oxygen and natural gas to each torch. 
 
if the torch o...
Sprinkler system must NOT be shut off or impaired while hot work is performed - ans --Place damp cloth guards on individual sprinkler heads 
 
The person conducting the fire watch ______ have other duties - ans --CANNOT 
 
A portable fire extinguisher with a rating of _________ is required a...
Preview 1 out of 4 pages
Add to cartSprinkler system must NOT be shut off or impaired while hot work is performed - ans --Place damp cloth guards on individual sprinkler heads 
 
The person conducting the fire watch ______ have other duties - ans --CANNOT 
 
A portable fire extinguisher with a rating of _________ is required a...
Fire guard - correct answers--A person holding a certificate of Fitness for such purposes, who is trained in and responsible for maintaining a fire watch and performing such fire safety duties as may be prescribed by the commissioner 
 
Fire Watch - correct answers--A temporary measure intended to...
Preview 1 out of 3 pages
Add to cartFire guard - correct answers--A person holding a certificate of Fitness for such purposes, who is trained in and responsible for maintaining a fire watch and performing such fire safety duties as may be prescribed by the commissioner 
 
Fire Watch - correct answers--A temporary measure intended to...
THE COF HOLDER MUST KEEP THE COF ___________ OR READILY AVAILABLE FOR INSPECTION - ans --UPON HIS OR HER PERSON 
 
PORTABLE LPG CONTAINERS THAT ARE MORE THAN ________ MUST NOT BE STORED, HANDLED, OR USED INDOORS. - ans --16.4 OZ 
 
PERMITS SHALL BE READILY AVAILABLE ON THE _________ FOR INSP...
Preview 1 out of 3 pages
Add to cartTHE COF HOLDER MUST KEEP THE COF ___________ OR READILY AVAILABLE FOR INSPECTION - ans --UPON HIS OR HER PERSON 
 
PORTABLE LPG CONTAINERS THAT ARE MORE THAN ________ MUST NOT BE STORED, HANDLED, OR USED INDOORS. - ans --16.4 OZ 
 
PERMITS SHALL BE READILY AVAILABLE ON THE _________ FOR INSP...
The fire watch for torch operations carried out in construction sites, in any building or structure, or on any rooftop shall be conducted by at least ____ F-60 fire guard. - --corect answer---1 
 
True or False? The COF holder must keep the certificate upon his or her person at all times while cond...
Preview 2 out of 6 pages
Add to cartThe fire watch for torch operations carried out in construction sites, in any building or structure, or on any rooftop shall be conducted by at least ____ F-60 fire guard. - --corect answer---1 
 
True or False? The COF holder must keep the certificate upon his or her person at all times while cond...
For hot work operation with citywide permit, the owner of the premises of the hot work operation areas must be notified in writing by the citywide permit holder ______ the hot work is to be started. - ans ----at least 48 hours before 
 
The pre-hot work check must be conducted by the responsible...
Preview 1 out of 2 pages
Add to cartFor hot work operation with citywide permit, the owner of the premises of the hot work operation areas must be notified in writing by the citywide permit holder ______ the hot work is to be started. - ans ----at least 48 hours before 
 
The pre-hot work check must be conducted by the responsible...
Why is a measure of serum lactate obtained in the initial assessment of the trauma patient? 
 
a) to measure oxygenation and ventilation 
b) to quantify the base deficit for the adequacy of cellular perfusion 
c) to gauge end-organ perfusion and tissue hypoxia 
d) to determine the underlying cause ...
Preview 2 out of 11 pages
Add to cartWhy is a measure of serum lactate obtained in the initial assessment of the trauma patient? 
 
a) to measure oxygenation and ventilation 
b) to quantify the base deficit for the adequacy of cellular perfusion 
c) to gauge end-organ perfusion and tissue hypoxia 
d) to determine the underlying cause ...
C What are the primary benefits of a team approach to trauma care - ans --it provides a systemic approach to care and organizes care 
 
A In the primary survey AVPU is performed to determine if the patient can: - ans --Protect their aiway 
 
B WHich may lead to unreliable pulse ox reading - ...
Preview 2 out of 5 pages
Add to cartC What are the primary benefits of a team approach to trauma care - ans --it provides a systemic approach to care and organizes care 
 
A In the primary survey AVPU is performed to determine if the patient can: - ans --Protect their aiway 
 
B WHich may lead to unreliable pulse ox reading - ...
what is the key to high performance trauma team? - ans -----effective communication 
skilled communication, cooperation and coordination are the cornerstones of high-performance teams and high-quality trauma care 
 
when obtaining a history for an injured patient, understanding the kinematic...
Preview 1 out of 4 pages
Add to cartwhat is the key to high performance trauma team? - ans -----effective communication 
skilled communication, cooperation and coordination are the cornerstones of high-performance teams and high-quality trauma care 
 
when obtaining a history for an injured patient, understanding the kinematic...
You are treating a 27-year old male in respiratory distress who was involved in a house fire. Calculating TBSA burned is deferred d/t the need for emergent intubation. At what rate should you begin fluid resuscitation? 
 
A) 1000 mL/hr 
B) 500 mL/hr 
C) 250 mL/hr 
D) 125 mL/hr - ans --B) 500 mL...
Preview 2 out of 11 pages
Add to cartYou are treating a 27-year old male in respiratory distress who was involved in a house fire. Calculating TBSA burned is deferred d/t the need for emergent intubation. At what rate should you begin fluid resuscitation? 
 
A) 1000 mL/hr 
B) 500 mL/hr 
C) 250 mL/hr 
D) 125 mL/hr - ans --B) 500 mL...
Codes that describe symptoms and signs, as opposed to diagnoses, are acceptable for reporting purposes when a related --- diagnosis has not been established by the provider. - correct ans----Definitive 
 
Code I10 is reported in the chapter entitled Diseases of the --- System. - correct ans----C...
Preview 1 out of 3 pages
Add to cartCodes that describe symptoms and signs, as opposed to diagnoses, are acceptable for reporting purposes when a related --- diagnosis has not been established by the provider. - correct ans----Definitive 
 
Code I10 is reported in the chapter entitled Diseases of the --- System. - correct ans----C...
Accrediting Bureau of Health Education Schools (ABHES) - correct answer --Accredits graduates of an accredited medical assisting program 
 
Administrative Simplification - correct answer --aspect of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 that developed standards for the el...
Preview 1 out of 3 pages
Add to cartAccrediting Bureau of Health Education Schools (ABHES) - correct answer --Accredits graduates of an accredited medical assisting program 
 
Administrative Simplification - correct answer --aspect of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 that developed standards for the el...
Which of the following types of query is unacceptable? - correct answers--Leading 
 
_______________________________ is a broad term encompassing documentation that supports a diagnosis as reportable and/or establishes the presence of a condition - correct answers--Clinical indicators 
 
Other tha...
Preview 1 out of 3 pages
Add to cartWhich of the following types of query is unacceptable? - correct answers--Leading 
 
_______________________________ is a broad term encompassing documentation that supports a diagnosis as reportable and/or establishes the presence of a condition - correct answers--Clinical indicators 
 
Other tha...
A patient is seen for sepsis with septic shock. 
How is the encounter coded using proper 
guideline sequencing as indicated in Chapter 1 
sepsis guidelines. - correct answers--A41.9, R65.21 
 
Infections following a procedure would use a code from which ICD10CM chapter? - correct answers--19 
 
So...
Preview 2 out of 5 pages
Add to cartA patient is seen for sepsis with septic shock. 
How is the encounter coded using proper 
guideline sequencing as indicated in Chapter 1 
sepsis guidelines. - correct answers--A41.9, R65.21 
 
Infections following a procedure would use a code from which ICD10CM chapter? - correct answers--19 
 
So...
Wi-Fi is a wireless connectivity that uses radio waves to connect computers and other devices to the internet 
A) True 
B) False - correct answers--True 
 
Temporary memory is the random access memory (RAM) 
A) True 
B) False - correct answers--F 
 
______ are used to index documents scanned withi...
Preview 2 out of 15 pages
Add to cartWi-Fi is a wireless connectivity that uses radio waves to connect computers and other devices to the internet 
A) True 
B) False - correct answers--True 
 
Temporary memory is the random access memory (RAM) 
A) True 
B) False - correct answers--F 
 
______ are used to index documents scanned withi...
False - correct answers--T/F: During a survey, the accrediting body will utilize the state's standards for licensure as an accrediting guide, without exceptions. 
 
True - correct answers--T/F: Medicare Quality indicators are criteria that, if present in a patient's record, are likely to result ...
Preview 3 out of 16 pages
Add to cartFalse - correct answers--T/F: During a survey, the accrediting body will utilize the state's standards for licensure as an accrediting guide, without exceptions. 
 
True - correct answers--T/F: Medicare Quality indicators are criteria that, if present in a patient's record, are likely to result ...
A cast change for the right thumb would be reported with code - ans --2W0GX2Z 
 
Hypnosis would be reported with code - ans --GZFZZZZ 
 
Introduction of radioactive materials into the body three dimensional display of the images developed from the capture of radioactive omission is known as ...
Preview 1 out of 4 pages
Add to cartA cast change for the right thumb would be reported with code - ans --2W0GX2Z 
 
Hypnosis would be reported with code - ans --GZFZZZZ 
 
Introduction of radioactive materials into the body three dimensional display of the images developed from the capture of radioactive omission is known as ...
Before I can submit a proposal to a vendor to purchase a new piece of equipment for my department, I need to get it approved. After completion, I give it to my director who review and routes it to the vice president. The vice president approves and routes it to the CEO. This movement up the organiza...
Preview 1 out of 3 pages
Add to cartBefore I can submit a proposal to a vendor to purchase a new piece of equipment for my department, I need to get it approved. After completion, I give it to my director who review and routes it to the vice president. The vice president approves and routes it to the CEO. This movement up the organiza...
The purpose of the TRELA is to... 
 
protect the public 
 
protect real estate brokers from unscrupulous salespeople 
 
keep the cost of real estate services under control 
 
protect real estate license holders - correct answer--protect the public 
 
The DPTA is a consumer protection law which ...
Preview 3 out of 16 pages
Add to cartThe purpose of the TRELA is to... 
 
protect the public 
 
protect real estate brokers from unscrupulous salespeople 
 
keep the cost of real estate services under control 
 
protect real estate license holders - correct answer--protect the public 
 
The DPTA is a consumer protection law which ...
Nicknames - correct answers--When added to a contract, what should be included in parenthesis...? 
 
Using the legal description of the property - correct answers--How should a property be described in a typical sales contract...? 
 
Factual statements and business details - correct answers--The ...
Preview 2 out of 8 pages
Add to cartNicknames - correct answers--When added to a contract, what should be included in parenthesis...? 
 
Using the legal description of the property - correct answers--How should a property be described in a typical sales contract...? 
 
Factual statements and business details - correct answers--The ...
Counteroffer - ans --A buyer makes an offer, the seller wants to accept the offer if the buyer will agree to a change in price. In these circumstances, the seller will give the buyer a 
 
Statute of Frauds - ans --What law requires certain types of contracts to be enforceable? 
 
Addresses i...
Preview 2 out of 6 pages
Add to cartCounteroffer - ans --A buyer makes an offer, the seller wants to accept the offer if the buyer will agree to a change in price. In these circumstances, the seller will give the buyer a 
 
Statute of Frauds - ans --What law requires certain types of contracts to be enforceable? 
 
Addresses i...
contract - ans ---agreement between 2 or more parties 
-one receives consideration 
-one either performs OR refrains from performing an act 
*prevent misunderstanding 
 
In a contract, both parites are - ans --liable=obligated to PERFORM or NOT PERFORM 
 
What can a contract DO? - ans -...
Preview 2 out of 5 pages
Add to cartcontract - ans ---agreement between 2 or more parties 
-one receives consideration 
-one either performs OR refrains from performing an act 
*prevent misunderstanding 
 
In a contract, both parites are - ans --liable=obligated to PERFORM or NOT PERFORM 
 
What can a contract DO? - ans -...
Broad Powers - correct answer The general powers, duties and responsibilities of the Commissioner include, but are not limited to the following: adopt rules and regulations to enforce provisions of the Insurance Code: conduct examinations, investigations, and hearings to determine whether any per...
Preview 2 out of 6 pages
Add to cartBroad Powers - correct answer The general powers, duties and responsibilities of the Commissioner include, but are not limited to the following: adopt rules and regulations to enforce provisions of the Insurance Code: conduct examinations, investigations, and hearings to determine whether any per...
scope of code - correct answer-All insurance and insurance transactions in this state. 
 
Public Interest - correct answer-The business of insurance is one affected by public interest. All person should act in good faith and abstain from deception. 
 
Examine of Records - correct answer-IC shall ...
Preview 3 out of 19 pages
Add to cartscope of code - correct answer-All insurance and insurance transactions in this state. 
 
Public Interest - correct answer-The business of insurance is one affected by public interest. All person should act in good faith and abstain from deception. 
 
Examine of Records - correct answer-IC shall ...
What are some facts about the state legislature? - correct ans----- All laws are created by the state legislature? 
- The legislature is the house of representative and senate 
- Only the legislature can pass laws 
- Once the laws are passed the govenor signs them 
 
What does RCW Stand for? - c...
Preview 2 out of 5 pages
Add to cartWhat are some facts about the state legislature? - correct ans----- All laws are created by the state legislature? 
- The legislature is the house of representative and senate 
- Only the legislature can pass laws 
- Once the laws are passed the govenor signs them 
 
What does RCW Stand for? - c...
Insurance Producer - correct ans----A person required to be licensed under the laws of this state to sell, solicit, or negotiate insurance. 
 
How long must an insurance producer maintain insurance transaction records? - correct ans----five years 
 
Immediate revocation (without a hearing) of an...
Preview 2 out of 5 pages
Add to cartInsurance Producer - correct ans----A person required to be licensed under the laws of this state to sell, solicit, or negotiate insurance. 
 
How long must an insurance producer maintain insurance transaction records? - correct ans----five years 
 
Immediate revocation (without a hearing) of an...
Who can be disciplined the the pharmacy commission jurisdiction? - correct ans----Pharmacists, interns, techs, assistants, wholesalers. But they have no authority over patients, nurses, or other HCPs. 
 
What class of felonies would most drug related crimes fall into? What is the # of years in pri...
Preview 4 out of 74 pages
Add to cartWho can be disciplined the the pharmacy commission jurisdiction? - correct ans----Pharmacists, interns, techs, assistants, wholesalers. But they have no authority over patients, nurses, or other HCPs. 
 
What class of felonies would most drug related crimes fall into? What is the # of years in pri...
Brevital (Sodium Methohexital) - correct ans----Primary anesthetic agent introduced in the 1960's. 
 
Balanced Anesthesia - correct ans----Use of several agents together 
 
Basic Requisites of an Anesthetic - correct ans----Lack of toxicity, non-flammable, non-addictive, minimal allergenicity...
Preview 2 out of 6 pages
Add to cartBrevital (Sodium Methohexital) - correct ans----Primary anesthetic agent introduced in the 1960's. 
 
Balanced Anesthesia - correct ans----Use of several agents together 
 
Basic Requisites of an Anesthetic - correct ans----Lack of toxicity, non-flammable, non-addictive, minimal allergenicity...
Diazepam (Valium) is used in outpatient oral and maxillofacial surgery to - correct answers--Sedate the patient 
 
Barbiturates are detoxified primarily in the - correct answers--Liver 
 
The reason that methohexital (Brevital) is considered the be ultrashort acting is because it is - correct ans...
Preview 1 out of 4 pages
Add to cartDiazepam (Valium) is used in outpatient oral and maxillofacial surgery to - correct answers--Sedate the patient 
 
Barbiturates are detoxified primarily in the - correct answers--Liver 
 
The reason that methohexital (Brevital) is considered the be ultrashort acting is because it is - correct ans...
Pulmonary artery - correct answers--One of two arteries that carry venous (oxygen poor) blood from heart to lungs 
 
What type of intubation is preferred with emesis with aspiration? - correct answers--ETT. LMA or combitube acceptable. 
 
What emergency would a cricothyrotomy typically be performe...
Preview 3 out of 28 pages
Add to cartPulmonary artery - correct answers--One of two arteries that carry venous (oxygen poor) blood from heart to lungs 
 
What type of intubation is preferred with emesis with aspiration? - correct answers--ETT. LMA or combitube acceptable. 
 
What emergency would a cricothyrotomy typically be performe...
Hypoxia - correct answers--Deficiency of oxygen in body tissue 
Give oxygen prior to anesthesia 
 
Laryngospasm - correct answers--Reflex of vocal cords to prevent passage of foreign material (blood/saliva). 
 
Treatment of laryngospasm - correct answers--1. 100% O2 
2. Suction 
3. Administer suc...
Preview 2 out of 13 pages
Add to cartHypoxia - correct answers--Deficiency of oxygen in body tissue 
Give oxygen prior to anesthesia 
 
Laryngospasm - correct answers--Reflex of vocal cords to prevent passage of foreign material (blood/saliva). 
 
Treatment of laryngospasm - correct answers--1. 100% O2 
2. Suction 
3. Administer suc...
1)What is the role of the central nervous system? 
2)What are the 3 subdivisions of the central nervous system? - correct answers--1) To provide overall control of body function 
2) Central Nervous System, Peripheral Nervous System, Autonomic Nervous System 
 
NERVOUS SYSTEM: 
1) What are the cells...
Preview 2 out of 11 pages
Add to cart1)What is the role of the central nervous system? 
2)What are the 3 subdivisions of the central nervous system? - correct answers--1) To provide overall control of body function 
2) Central Nervous System, Peripheral Nervous System, Autonomic Nervous System 
 
NERVOUS SYSTEM: 
1) What are the cells...
Nose/nasal passages, sinuses, pharynx - correct answer --What consists of the upper airway? 
 
Larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, pulmonary alveoli - correct answer --What consists of the lower airway? 
 
Immediate hypersensitivity response that involves antigen-antibody reactions (IgE) - corr...
Preview 4 out of 41 pages
Add to cartNose/nasal passages, sinuses, pharynx - correct answer --What consists of the upper airway? 
 
Larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, pulmonary alveoli - correct answer --What consists of the lower airway? 
 
Immediate hypersensitivity response that involves antigen-antibody reactions (IgE) - corr...
Wave of Depolarization - ans --an advancing wave of charge reversal as the nerve impulse advance a long the neuron 
 
Wakefullness system - ans --consists of a central core in the brainstem with neurons that radiate to the cortex 
 
Vomiting Center - ans --the center in the brainstem tha...
Preview 2 out of 13 pages
Add to cartWave of Depolarization - ans --an advancing wave of charge reversal as the nerve impulse advance a long the neuron 
 
Wakefullness system - ans --consists of a central core in the brainstem with neurons that radiate to the cortex 
 
Vomiting Center - ans --the center in the brainstem tha...
Signs of malignant hyperthermia - correct answers--Tachycardia, CO2 retention, muscle rigidity, increase in body temp, lethal arrythmia 
 
Tx for malignant hyperthermia - correct answers--EMS, O2, dantrolene, cold saline IV, ice packs-groin, axilla,neck 
 
What tyoe of med is methohexital/brevital...
Preview 3 out of 16 pages
Add to cartSigns of malignant hyperthermia - correct answers--Tachycardia, CO2 retention, muscle rigidity, increase in body temp, lethal arrythmia 
 
Tx for malignant hyperthermia - correct answers--EMS, O2, dantrolene, cold saline IV, ice packs-groin, axilla,neck 
 
What tyoe of med is methohexital/brevital...
A leasehold estate that continues for a successive periods of equal length until terminated by proper notice from either party is a - correct answers--Periodic tenancy 
 
Physical land and everything attached to it is called - correct answers--Real Estate 
 
Equipment a tenant installs for use in ...
Preview 4 out of 67 pages
Add to cartA leasehold estate that continues for a successive periods of equal length until terminated by proper notice from either party is a - correct answers--Periodic tenancy 
 
Physical land and everything attached to it is called - correct answers--Real Estate 
 
Equipment a tenant installs for use in ...
For the income approach to appraisal, value is a reference to what? - correct answers--the worth of the investment 
 
Which method of property description is most frequently used in New York State? - correct answers--Metes and bounds 
 
One important characteristic of investing caused Bill to inve...
Preview 2 out of 7 pages
Add to cartFor the income approach to appraisal, value is a reference to what? - correct answers--the worth of the investment 
 
Which method of property description is most frequently used in New York State? - correct answers--Metes and bounds 
 
One important characteristic of investing caused Bill to inve...
The STAR program provides a partial exemption to NYS homeowners for: 
 
A. school district taxes 
B. special assessment taxes 
C. county property taxes 
D. capital gains taxes - correct answers--school district taxes 
 
A licensee attempts to get listings by telling homeowners in a neighborhood tha...
Preview 3 out of 21 pages
Add to cartThe STAR program provides a partial exemption to NYS homeowners for: 
 
A. school district taxes 
B. special assessment taxes 
C. county property taxes 
D. capital gains taxes - correct answers--school district taxes 
 
A licensee attempts to get listings by telling homeowners in a neighborhood tha...
A vertical piece used to frame a structure is called a: - correct answers--stud 
 
What are horizontal parallel framing boards used to support floor loads? - correct answers--joist 
 
With regard to residential insulation, what does R- value refer to? - correct answers--resistant to heat transfer...
Preview 3 out of 16 pages
Add to cartA vertical piece used to frame a structure is called a: - correct answers--stud 
 
What are horizontal parallel framing boards used to support floor loads? - correct answers--joist 
 
With regard to residential insulation, what does R- value refer to? - correct answers--resistant to heat transfer...
transactions, transactions involving a "federally related" mortgage (conventional, FHA, VA) 
 
Which party's signature is required on a deed of trust? 
 
A. the trustee 
B. the beneficiary 
C. the trustor(s) 
D. the grantee(s) - correct answers--C. the trustor(s) 
The trustor is the borrower in...
Preview 2 out of 8 pages
Add to carttransactions, transactions involving a "federally related" mortgage (conventional, FHA, VA) 
 
Which party's signature is required on a deed of trust? 
 
A. the trustee 
B. the beneficiary 
C. the trustor(s) 
D. the grantee(s) - correct answers--C. the trustor(s) 
The trustor is the borrower in...
Chapter 1 - correct answers--According to IRS, salespersons are independent contractors (earnings for 1099) 
 
Statutory Non-employees 
 
Keep records for 3 years 
 
Salesperson - 18 +, Broker - 20+ 
 
Receive commissions from supervising broker ONLY 
 
Broker cannot schedule them or require meetin...
Preview 2 out of 11 pages
Add to cartChapter 1 - correct answers--According to IRS, salespersons are independent contractors (earnings for 1099) 
 
Statutory Non-employees 
 
Keep records for 3 years 
 
Salesperson - 18 +, Broker - 20+ 
 
Receive commissions from supervising broker ONLY 
 
Broker cannot schedule them or require meetin...
Why are gasoline and volatile solvents objectionable when present in a sewer? - correct answers--They produce an explosion hazard 
 
You should never attempt to install, maintain, repair or replace electrical equipment panels, controls, wiring or circuits unless - correct answers--You know what yo...
Preview 2 out of 11 pages
Add to cartWhy are gasoline and volatile solvents objectionable when present in a sewer? - correct answers--They produce an explosion hazard 
 
You should never attempt to install, maintain, repair or replace electrical equipment panels, controls, wiring or circuits unless - correct answers--You know what yo...
In order to accurately estimate the flow of a sanitary sewer overflow (SSO) you must have: - correct answer Spill start time, spill end time and spill rate 
 
Providing a plan and schedule to properly manage, operate and maintain all parts of the sanitary sewer system is the goal of a: - correct a...
Preview 3 out of 19 pages
Add to cartIn order to accurately estimate the flow of a sanitary sewer overflow (SSO) you must have: - correct answer Spill start time, spill end time and spill rate 
 
Providing a plan and schedule to properly manage, operate and maintain all parts of the sanitary sewer system is the goal of a: - correct a...
information architecture - correct answer organization and structure for the content of websites and web and mobile application 
 
card sorting - correct answer user experience design technique where test subjects organize cards labeled with key concepts into a taxonomy or structure 
 
content m...
Preview 1 out of 4 pages
Add to cartinformation architecture - correct answer organization and structure for the content of websites and web and mobile application 
 
card sorting - correct answer user experience design technique where test subjects organize cards labeled with key concepts into a taxonomy or structure 
 
content m...
Equality (A1) - correct answers--Ensuring individuals or groups of individuals are treated fairly and equally with equal access to the services they need, meaning that they receive service that meets their personal needs regardless of how they live or where. It means that everyone has equal opportu...
Preview 4 out of 37 pages
Add to cartEquality (A1) - correct answers--Ensuring individuals or groups of individuals are treated fairly and equally with equal access to the services they need, meaning that they receive service that meets their personal needs regardless of how they live or where. It means that everyone has equal opportu...
Jim Smith is involved in a collision claim and is no longer able to use the vehicle to go to work. This "loss of use" is referred to as a: 
 
Direct loss 
Indirect loss 
Loss evaluation 
Consequential loss - correct answers--Consequential loss 
 
When the rear of the vehicle is damaged and the...
Preview 4 out of 46 pages
Add to cartJim Smith is involved in a collision claim and is no longer able to use the vehicle to go to work. This "loss of use" is referred to as a: 
 
Direct loss 
Indirect loss 
Loss evaluation 
Consequential loss - correct answers--Consequential loss 
 
When the rear of the vehicle is damaged and the...
Authority of the Auto Damage Appraiser 
Licensing Board (M.G.L. C. 26 Sec. 8G; 212 
CMR 2.01) - correct answers--2.01: Scope of Regulations 
(1) Purpose and Applicability. The purpose of 212 CMR 2.00 is to promote the public welfare 
and safety by improving the quality and economy of the appraisal ...
Preview 2 out of 13 pages
Add to cartAuthority of the Auto Damage Appraiser 
Licensing Board (M.G.L. C. 26 Sec. 8G; 212 
CMR 2.01) - correct answers--2.01: Scope of Regulations 
(1) Purpose and Applicability. The purpose of 212 CMR 2.00 is to promote the public welfare 
and safety by improving the quality and economy of the appraisal ...
You arrive to find a 48 year old male complaining that his chest feels heavy. The patient is awake and talking to you. During your assessment, you note that his skin is pale, cool, and clammy. Your first step is to: 
A. apply your AED 
B. administer supplemental oxygen 
C. obtain a past medical hist...
Preview 3 out of 29 pages
Add to cartYou arrive to find a 48 year old male complaining that his chest feels heavy. The patient is awake and talking to you. During your assessment, you note that his skin is pale, cool, and clammy. Your first step is to: 
A. apply your AED 
B. administer supplemental oxygen 
C. obtain a past medical hist...
A 72 year old patient exhibits sudden onset of fluctuating restlessness, agitation, confusion, and impaired attention. This is accompanied by visual hallucinations and sleep disturbance. What is the most likely cause of this behavior? NRNP - 6531 Week 10 Knowledge Check Adv Practice Care of Adults A...
Preview 2 out of 11 pages
Add to cartA 72 year old patient exhibits sudden onset of fluctuating restlessness, agitation, confusion, and impaired attention. This is accompanied by visual hallucinations and sleep disturbance. What is the most likely cause of this behavior? NRNP - 6531 Week 10 Knowledge Check Adv Practice Care of Adults A...
Given the following set of numbers: 3.3, -2.3, -16, 25. What are the square roots of the whole number? 
A. +/- 2.3 
B. +/- 3.3 
C. +/- 4 
D. +/- 5 - correct answer--D. +/- 5 
 
Composite Number - correct answer--A number with more factors that just one and itself. 
 
Equivalent Fractions - cor...
Preview 2 out of 11 pages
Add to cartGiven the following set of numbers: 3.3, -2.3, -16, 25. What are the square roots of the whole number? 
A. +/- 2.3 
B. +/- 3.3 
C. +/- 4 
D. +/- 5 - correct answer--D. +/- 5 
 
Composite Number - correct answer--A number with more factors that just one and itself. 
 
Equivalent Fractions - cor...
discrete data - correct ans----distinct values, can be counted, unconnected points (ex. number of students) 
 
continuous data - correct ans----values are within a range, measured not counted, no gaps between data points (ex. time in a race) 
 
less than or greater than - correct ans----marked...
Preview 2 out of 7 pages
Add to cartdiscrete data - correct ans----distinct values, can be counted, unconnected points (ex. number of students) 
 
continuous data - correct ans----values are within a range, measured not counted, no gaps between data points (ex. time in a race) 
 
less than or greater than - correct ans----marked...
_________ _________ must relate to the data that will be collected by the researcher. - correct answers--Research questions 
 
Every study has ________, ________, and ________, all of which must be stated explicitly. - correct answers--Assumptions, limitations, and delimitations 
 
The ______ and ...
Preview 2 out of 9 pages
Add to cart_________ _________ must relate to the data that will be collected by the researcher. - correct answers--Research questions 
 
Every study has ________, ________, and ________, all of which must be stated explicitly. - correct answers--Assumptions, limitations, and delimitations 
 
The ______ and ...
A study was conducted to see if gender influences the number of alcoholic beverages consumed per day. 
 
Which type of classification is this? - correct ans----Categorical, categorical 
(Categorical, quantitative) 
Quantitative, categorical 
Quantitative, quantitative 
 
Given the following set...
Preview 3 out of 26 pages
Add to cartA study was conducted to see if gender influences the number of alcoholic beverages consumed per day. 
 
Which type of classification is this? - correct ans----Categorical, categorical 
(Categorical, quantitative) 
Quantitative, categorical 
Quantitative, quantitative 
 
Given the following set...
When one variable causes change in another, we call the first variable the ___________________ variable*. 
 
The affected variable is called the _______________ variable*. - correct answers--When one variable causes change in another, we call the first variable the explanatory variable*. 
 
The a...
Preview 2 out of 10 pages
Add to cartWhen one variable causes change in another, we call the first variable the ___________________ variable*. 
 
The affected variable is called the _______________ variable*. - correct answers--When one variable causes change in another, we call the first variable the explanatory variable*. 
 
The a...
whole numbers - Numbers that do not contain decimals or fractions 
 
Integers - Whole numbers and their opposites 
 
rational numbers - All positive and negative integers, fractions and decimal numbers. 
 
Real numbers - Any number that can be placed on a number line. Including numbers that do not e...
Preview 2 out of 5 pages
Add to cartwhole numbers - Numbers that do not contain decimals or fractions 
 
Integers - Whole numbers and their opposites 
 
rational numbers - All positive and negative integers, fractions and decimal numbers. 
 
Real numbers - Any number that can be placed on a number line. Including numbers that do not e...
Converting between Decimals & Percent's - correct ans----Percent's are a special kind of fraction (part of a whole) where the whole is 100. Percent is represented by the symbol %. 
25% means 25 parts of 100. 25 parts of 100 can also be written as a decimal fraction of 0.25. 
 
Example - Converti...
Preview 2 out of 10 pages
Add to cartConverting between Decimals & Percent's - correct ans----Percent's are a special kind of fraction (part of a whole) where the whole is 100. Percent is represented by the symbol %. 
25% means 25 parts of 100. 25 parts of 100 can also be written as a decimal fraction of 0.25. 
 
Example - Converti...
ratio - correct answer--Measures one quantity in relation to another quantity. 
 
rate - correct answer--A ratio that compares two quantities having different units of measure. 
 
cross multiplying - correct answer--A method used to prove that a proportion is true. 
 
butterfly method - ...
Preview 1 out of 2 pages
Add to cartratio - correct answer--Measures one quantity in relation to another quantity. 
 
rate - correct answer--A ratio that compares two quantities having different units of measure. 
 
cross multiplying - correct answer--A method used to prove that a proportion is true. 
 
butterfly method - ...
functional classification of joints - correct ans----synarthroses, amphiarthroses, diarthroses 
 
structural classification of joints - correct ans----fibrous, cartilaginous, synovial 
 
Atlas (C1) - correct ans----supports the head 
 
Axis (C2) - correct ans----second cervical vertebrae 
 
...
Preview 1 out of 4 pages
Add to cartfunctional classification of joints - correct ans----synarthroses, amphiarthroses, diarthroses 
 
structural classification of joints - correct ans----fibrous, cartilaginous, synovial 
 
Atlas (C1) - correct ans----supports the head 
 
Axis (C2) - correct ans----second cervical vertebrae 
 
...
Basic Life Processes - correct answers--Metabolism, Responsiveness, movement, growth, differentiation, reproduction 
 
Homeostasis- Negative Feedback - correct answers--Blood Pressure, Nerve Impulses 
 
Homeostasis- Positive Feedback - correct answers--Childbirth, Blood Clotts 
 
Cranial - corre...
Preview 2 out of 7 pages
Add to cartBasic Life Processes - correct answers--Metabolism, Responsiveness, movement, growth, differentiation, reproduction 
 
Homeostasis- Negative Feedback - correct answers--Blood Pressure, Nerve Impulses 
 
Homeostasis- Positive Feedback - correct answers--Childbirth, Blood Clotts 
 
Cranial - corre...
Which part of an information system consists of the rules or guidelines for people to follow - correct answer--Procedures 
 
The equipment that processes data in order to create information is called the - correct answer--Hardware 
 
In most cases the word software is interchangeable with the ...
Preview 3 out of 18 pages
Add to cartWhich part of an information system consists of the rules or guidelines for people to follow - correct answer--Procedures 
 
The equipment that processes data in order to create information is called the - correct answer--Hardware 
 
In most cases the word software is interchangeable with the ...
Cloud Computeing - Ans --Shared pools of configurable computer system resources and higher-level services that can be rapidly provisioned with minimal management effort, often over the internet. 
 
Non-Volatile Memory - Ans --More permanent storage like flash or hard disk 
 
One-Sided Market...
Preview 2 out of 12 pages
Add to cartCloud Computeing - Ans --Shared pools of configurable computer system resources and higher-level services that can be rapidly provisioned with minimal management effort, often over the internet. 
 
Non-Volatile Memory - Ans --More permanent storage like flash or hard disk 
 
One-Sided Market...
Hardware vs Software - correct ans----Hardware: physical machine. 
Software: instructions to the machine. 
 
CPU (Central Processing Unit) - correct ans----the brain of the computer 
 
Input devices - correct ans----mouse, keyboard, scanner 
 
Output devices - correct ans----monitor, printer...
Preview 1 out of 2 pages
Add to cartHardware vs Software - correct ans----Hardware: physical machine. 
Software: instructions to the machine. 
 
CPU (Central Processing Unit) - correct ans----the brain of the computer 
 
Input devices - correct ans----mouse, keyboard, scanner 
 
Output devices - correct ans----monitor, printer...
The Kingdom of God is? - correct answer--Both already and not yet 
 
Worldview element that deals with right and wrong based on truth - correct answer--ethics 
 
Romans 8:28-29 God wants us to be - correct answer--more like Christ 
 
Revelation 22:7 Jesus starts with saying - correct ans...
Preview 1 out of 3 pages
Add to cartThe Kingdom of God is? - correct answer--Both already and not yet 
 
Worldview element that deals with right and wrong based on truth - correct answer--ethics 
 
Romans 8:28-29 God wants us to be - correct answer--more like Christ 
 
Revelation 22:7 Jesus starts with saying - correct ans...
List the various definitions and descriptions of worldview found in the textbook and lecture. - Set of assumptions to which one commits to serve as a framework for understanding reality and shaping ones behavior 
 
According to Chapter 1 in the textbook and Lecture 1, which worldview families use bo...
Preview 2 out of 5 pages
Add to cartList the various definitions and descriptions of worldview found in the textbook and lecture. - Set of assumptions to which one commits to serve as a framework for understanding reality and shaping ones behavior 
 
According to Chapter 1 in the textbook and Lecture 1, which worldview families use bo...
What does "PII" stand for? - correct answer --Personally Identifiable Information 
 
In RTB, a SellSide Platform (SSP) represents the publisher and also hosts an auction on a per impression basis. - correct answer --True 
 
The major difference between a true DSP and an ad network is: - correct ...
Preview 2 out of 5 pages
Add to cartWhat does "PII" stand for? - correct answer --Personally Identifiable Information 
 
In RTB, a SellSide Platform (SSP) represents the publisher and also hosts an auction on a per impression basis. - correct answer --True 
 
The major difference between a true DSP and an ad network is: - correct ...
"Dynamic Creative Optimization" creates a personalized ad for each user by using cookies. - correct answer True 
 
A demand-side platform (DSP) sells inventory on behalf of publishers across the internet. - correct answer False 
 
A data management platform (DMP) helps you evaluate audience da...
Preview 2 out of 11 pages
Add to cart"Dynamic Creative Optimization" creates a personalized ad for each user by using cookies. - correct answer True 
 
A demand-side platform (DSP) sells inventory on behalf of publishers across the internet. - correct answer False 
 
A data management platform (DMP) helps you evaluate audience da...
What is the difference between anatomy and physiology - correct ans----anatomy- study of structure 
physiology- study of function 
 
what are the levels of organization - correct ans----subatomic particle- protons, electrons, neutrons 
atom 
molecule 
macromolecule 
organelle 
cell 
tissue 
orga...
Preview 2 out of 14 pages
Add to cartWhat is the difference between anatomy and physiology - correct ans----anatomy- study of structure 
physiology- study of function 
 
what are the levels of organization - correct ans----subatomic particle- protons, electrons, neutrons 
atom 
molecule 
macromolecule 
organelle 
cell 
tissue 
orga...
anatomy - correct answer --The study of structure and the relationships between structures is _______________. 
 
physiology - correct answer --The study of the function of body parts is _______________. 
 
Organelles, cells, tissues, organs, organ systems - correct answer --What are the levels o...
Preview 3 out of 23 pages
Add to cartanatomy - correct answer --The study of structure and the relationships between structures is _______________. 
 
physiology - correct answer --The study of the function of body parts is _______________. 
 
Organelles, cells, tissues, organs, organ systems - correct answer --What are the levels o...
step 4: When the epiphysial cartilage has ossified (hardened), bone growth stops. 
 
What is the epiphyseal plate? - ans ----as spongy bone is deposited in the diaphysis and in the epiphysis, a band of cartilage will form 
 
what are the parts of a long bone? - ans ----epiphysis and diaphysi...
Preview 3 out of 24 pages
Add to cartstep 4: When the epiphysial cartilage has ossified (hardened), bone growth stops. 
 
What is the epiphyseal plate? - ans ----as spongy bone is deposited in the diaphysis and in the epiphysis, a band of cartilage will form 
 
what are the parts of a long bone? - ans ----epiphysis and diaphysi...
which sentence is written correctly? 
 
A. - correct answers--a. Because she was uncertain of her abilities, Renee asked for help. 
 
b. Because she was uncertain of her abilities; Renee asked for help. 
 
c. Because she was uncertain of her abilities Renee asked for help. 
 
d. Because she was, un...
Preview 3 out of 16 pages
Add to cartwhich sentence is written correctly? 
 
A. - correct answers--a. Because she was uncertain of her abilities, Renee asked for help. 
 
b. Because she was uncertain of her abilities; Renee asked for help. 
 
c. Because she was uncertain of her abilities Renee asked for help. 
 
d. Because she was, un...
1. In an interview, the nurse may find it necessary to take notes to aid his or her memory later. Which statement is true regarding note-taking? 
 
A) Note-taking may impede the nurse's observation of the patient's nonverbal behaviors. 
B) Note-taking allows the patient to continue at his or her ...
Preview 4 out of 40 pages
Add to cart1. In an interview, the nurse may find it necessary to take notes to aid his or her memory later. Which statement is true regarding note-taking? 
 
A) Note-taking may impede the nurse's observation of the patient's nonverbal behaviors. 
B) Note-taking allows the patient to continue at his or her ...
Suicide precautions are initiated for a child admitted to the mental health unit following an intentional narcotic overdose. After a visitor leaves, the nurse finds a package of cigarettes in the client's room. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement? - correct answer Remo...
Preview 4 out of 31 pages
Add to cartSuicide precautions are initiated for a child admitted to the mental health unit following an intentional narcotic overdose. After a visitor leaves, the nurse finds a package of cigarettes in the client's room. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement? - correct answer Remo...
Choose the option that correctly identifies the preposition in the sentence below. 
 
The scared child clung tightly to her mother's leg. 
 
A) clung 
B) to 
C) tightly 
D) scared - correct answer --B 
 
The kids watched the birds fly in the park. 
 
Which term best describes "the birds" in this...
Preview 4 out of 35 pages
Add to cartChoose the option that correctly identifies the preposition in the sentence below. 
 
The scared child clung tightly to her mother's leg. 
 
A) clung 
B) to 
C) tightly 
D) scared - correct answer --B 
 
The kids watched the birds fly in the park. 
 
Which term best describes "the birds" in this...
When I get my guide license, I no longer have to purchase a hunting or fishing license in the state of Maine. - ans --False 
 
What license(s) would I need to guide a client fishing for stripers on salt water? - ans --USCG Captain's License - Tidewater Fishing 
 
Which license(s) would I need to gu...
Preview 2 out of 8 pages
Add to cartWhen I get my guide license, I no longer have to purchase a hunting or fishing license in the state of Maine. - ans --False 
 
What license(s) would I need to guide a client fishing for stripers on salt water? - ans --USCG Captain's License - Tidewater Fishing 
 
Which license(s) would I need to gu...
Eyelash Extensions -correct ans--Means the application, removal, and trimming of thread like natural or synthetic fibers to an eyelash, and includes the cleansing of the eye area and lashes. Eyelash extensions do not include color agents, straightening agents, permanent wave solutions, bleaching age...
Preview 2 out of 7 pages
Add to cartEyelash Extensions -correct ans--Means the application, removal, and trimming of thread like natural or synthetic fibers to an eyelash, and includes the cleansing of the eye area and lashes. Eyelash extensions do not include color agents, straightening agents, permanent wave solutions, bleaching age...
Occurs when the meibomian gland becomes obstructed and usually clear, oily material be ones opaque & greasy - cchalazion 
 
small purulent infection of sebaceous gland of eye treated with hot compresses and surgical incision; also called hordeolum - cstye 
 
outward turning of the rim of the eyeli...
Preview 2 out of 5 pages
Add to cartOccurs when the meibomian gland becomes obstructed and usually clear, oily material be ones opaque & greasy - cchalazion 
 
small purulent infection of sebaceous gland of eye treated with hot compresses and surgical incision; also called hordeolum - cstye 
 
outward turning of the rim of the eyeli...
Detail normal air passage when a patient breathes. - ans --air rushes through nasal passages and trachea, bronchi , & into lungs where it's absorbed by the alveoli 
 
What happens during auscultation? - ans --Healthcare professional listen to the heart sounds through a stethoscope 
 
What are bronc...
Preview 1 out of 3 pages
Add to cartDetail normal air passage when a patient breathes. - ans --air rushes through nasal passages and trachea, bronchi , & into lungs where it's absorbed by the alveoli 
 
What happens during auscultation? - ans --Healthcare professional listen to the heart sounds through a stethoscope 
 
What are bronc...
Which of the following factors can have a negative effect on uterine blood flow? 
a. Hypertension 
b. Epidural 
c. Hemorrhage 
d. Diabetes 
e. All of the above - correct answer e. All of the above 
 
How does the fetus compensate for decreased maternal circulating volume? 
a. Increases cardiac out...
Preview 4 out of 58 pages
Add to cartWhich of the following factors can have a negative effect on uterine blood flow? 
a. Hypertension 
b. Epidural 
c. Hemorrhage 
d. Diabetes 
e. All of the above - correct answer e. All of the above 
 
How does the fetus compensate for decreased maternal circulating volume? 
a. Increases cardiac out...
Why use fetal monitoring? - Primary goal is to prevent fetal and maternal morbidity and mortality (prevent injury and death to mother and/ or baby), to prevent bad patient outcomes. 
 
What percent of babies who experience a suboptimal event while being fetal monitored, develop cerebral palsy? - 3% ...
Preview 2 out of 9 pages
Add to cartWhy use fetal monitoring? - Primary goal is to prevent fetal and maternal morbidity and mortality (prevent injury and death to mother and/ or baby), to prevent bad patient outcomes. 
 
What percent of babies who experience a suboptimal event while being fetal monitored, develop cerebral palsy? - 3% ...
Which of the following is a gram negative rod? - ans --E. Coli 
cnWhich if the following could have a tentative identification of "cocci in chains"? - ans --Streptococcus 
cnWhich antibiotic best treats Chlamydia? - ans --Erythromycin 
cnDark blue or magenta colored papules or nodules (blue ...
Preview 4 out of 33 pages
Add to cartWhich of the following is a gram negative rod? - ans --E. Coli 
cnWhich if the following could have a tentative identification of "cocci in chains"? - ans --Streptococcus 
cnWhich antibiotic best treats Chlamydia? - ans --Erythromycin 
cnDark blue or magenta colored papules or nodules (blue ...
- fetoscope! listens to how the valves of the heart close 
- Fetoscope is the only true auscultation tool. Doppler picks up heart motion. Fetoscope listens to the valves closing. - correct answer --what is the ONLY true auscultation method? 
 
- easy 
- less charting 
- lower c/s rates 
- allows pa...
Preview 1 out of 4 pages
Add to cart- fetoscope! listens to how the valves of the heart close 
- Fetoscope is the only true auscultation tool. Doppler picks up heart motion. Fetoscope listens to the valves closing. - correct answer --what is the ONLY true auscultation method? 
 
- easy 
- less charting 
- lower c/s rates 
- allows pa...
What is the purpose of fetal monitoring? - correct answer To assess fetal well being during antepartum and intrapartum 
 
True or false: Fetal monitoring must be doned by a licensed and trained health care provider. - correct answer True 
 
Characteristics to assess fetal status includes: - corr...
Preview 2 out of 7 pages
Add to cartWhat is the purpose of fetal monitoring? - correct answer To assess fetal well being during antepartum and intrapartum 
 
True or false: Fetal monitoring must be doned by a licensed and trained health care provider. - correct answer True 
 
Characteristics to assess fetal status includes: - corr...
Ductus venosus connects ______ to ______? - Umb. vein to IVC 
 
Foramen ovale connects _______to______? - R. atrium to L. atrium 
 
Ductus arteriosus connects _______ to _______? - Pulm. artery to aorta 
 
Normal rate - 110 to 160 BPM 
 
Average baseline rate at 15wks gestation - 160 BPM 
 
Average ...
Preview 1 out of 3 pages
Add to cartDuctus venosus connects ______ to ______? - Umb. vein to IVC 
 
Foramen ovale connects _______to______? - R. atrium to L. atrium 
 
Ductus arteriosus connects _______ to _______? - Pulm. artery to aorta 
 
Normal rate - 110 to 160 BPM 
 
Average baseline rate at 15wks gestation - 160 BPM 
 
Average ...
The area of the control keypad that allows the operator to show different information, such as offsets, machine settings, and the current program. - ans --offset 
 
The area of the control keypad that allows an operator to enter letters and special characters 
into the control. - ans --Alpha keys 
 ...
Preview 1 out of 3 pages
Add to cartThe area of the control keypad that allows the operator to show different information, such as offsets, machine settings, and the current program. - ans --offset 
 
The area of the control keypad that allows an operator to enter letters and special characters 
into the control. - ans --Alpha keys 
 ...
functional classification of joints - correct answer --synarthroses, amphiarthroses, diarthroses 
 
structural classification of joints - correct answer --fibrous, cartilaginous, synovial 
 
Atlas (C1) - correct answer --supports the head 
 
Axis (C2) - correct answer --second cervical vertebrae...
Preview 1 out of 4 pages
Add to cartfunctional classification of joints - correct answer --synarthroses, amphiarthroses, diarthroses 
 
structural classification of joints - correct answer --fibrous, cartilaginous, synovial 
 
Atlas (C1) - correct answer --supports the head 
 
Axis (C2) - correct answer --second cervical vertebrae...
Components of the homeostatic control loop - correct ans--receptor, control center, effector 
 
Negative feedback - correct ans---works to oppose change 
-brings condition back to a set point 
 
Positive feedback - correct ans---works to enhance change 
-brings condition further away from a set poin...
Preview 2 out of 8 pages
Add to cartComponents of the homeostatic control loop - correct ans--receptor, control center, effector 
 
Negative feedback - correct ans---works to oppose change 
-brings condition back to a set point 
 
Positive feedback - correct ans---works to enhance change 
-brings condition further away from a set poin...
Components of the homeostatic control loop - correct ans--receptor, control center, effector 
 
Negative feedback - correct ans---works to oppose change 
-brings condition back to a set point 
 
Positive feedback - correct ans---works to enhance change 
-brings condition further away from a set poin...
Preview 2 out of 8 pages
Add to cartComponents of the homeostatic control loop - correct ans--receptor, control center, effector 
 
Negative feedback - correct ans---works to oppose change 
-brings condition back to a set point 
 
Positive feedback - correct ans---works to enhance change 
-brings condition further away from a set poin...
Basic Life Processes - Metabolism, Responsiveness, movement, growth, differentiation, reproduction 
 
Homeostasis- Negative Feedback - Blood Pressure, Nerve Impulses 
 
Homeostasis- Positive Feedback - Childbirth, Blood Clotts 
 
Cranial - Skull 
 
Frontal - Forehead 
 
Orbital - Eye 
 
Otic - Ear 
...
Preview 2 out of 5 pages
Add to cartBasic Life Processes - Metabolism, Responsiveness, movement, growth, differentiation, reproduction 
 
Homeostasis- Negative Feedback - Blood Pressure, Nerve Impulses 
 
Homeostasis- Positive Feedback - Childbirth, Blood Clotts 
 
Cranial - Skull 
 
Frontal - Forehead 
 
Orbital - Eye 
 
Otic - Ear 
...
What is the allowable cargo load of the LUH-72A in its normal configuration when used for MEDEVAC operations? - 2 litter, 1 medic, and 5 ambulatory. 
 
What is the primary use for the CH-47 when used during CASEVAC missions? - Mass Casualty Evacuation. 
 
What is the crew of a LUH- 72A when not bein...
Preview 2 out of 6 pages
Add to cartWhat is the allowable cargo load of the LUH-72A in its normal configuration when used for MEDEVAC operations? - 2 litter, 1 medic, and 5 ambulatory. 
 
What is the primary use for the CH-47 when used during CASEVAC missions? - Mass Casualty Evacuation. 
 
What is the crew of a LUH- 72A when not bein...
What is the allowable cargo load of the LUH-72A in its normal configuration when used for MEDEVAC operations? - 2 litter, 1 medic, or 5 ambulatory. 
 
What is the primary use for the CH-47 when used during CASEVAC missions? - Mass Casualty Evacuation. 
 
What is the crew of a LUH- 72A when not being...
Preview 2 out of 6 pages
Add to cartWhat is the allowable cargo load of the LUH-72A in its normal configuration when used for MEDEVAC operations? - 2 litter, 1 medic, or 5 ambulatory. 
 
What is the primary use for the CH-47 when used during CASEVAC missions? - Mass Casualty Evacuation. 
 
What is the crew of a LUH- 72A when not being...
client who is 16 weeks of gestation asks the nurse how to prepare her father to a younger sibling. Statements should the nurse make? 
 
a. You should hold your newborn in your arms when you introduce him to your toddler 
 
b. you should move your toddler out of her crib 2 weeks prior to your due d...
Preview 2 out of 13 pages
Add to cartclient who is 16 weeks of gestation asks the nurse how to prepare her father to a younger sibling. Statements should the nurse make? 
 
a. You should hold your newborn in your arms when you introduce him to your toddler 
 
b. you should move your toddler out of her crib 2 weeks prior to your due d...
The common characteristic possessed by all assets is 
 
a) Long life 
b) Great monetary value 
c) Tangible nature 
d) Future economic benefit - d) Future economic benefit 
 
Which Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) attempts to acquire particular resources at a lower real cost than could be obtained in...
Preview 4 out of 35 pages
Add to cartThe common characteristic possessed by all assets is 
 
a) Long life 
b) Great monetary value 
c) Tangible nature 
d) Future economic benefit - d) Future economic benefit 
 
Which Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) attempts to acquire particular resources at a lower real cost than could be obtained in...
In marketing research, a firm might consider using secondary data over primary data because 
 
a) secondary data usually cost less 
b) secondary data are usually more accurate 
c) primary data are usually non specific 
d) primary data are likely to be outdated - a) secondary data usually cost less 
...
Preview 4 out of 35 pages
Add to cartIn marketing research, a firm might consider using secondary data over primary data because 
 
a) secondary data usually cost less 
b) secondary data are usually more accurate 
c) primary data are usually non specific 
d) primary data are likely to be outdated - a) secondary data usually cost less 
...
the six links of the patient care chain of survival are: - correct answe1. recognition and response activation 
2. early CPR 
3. rapid defibrillation 
4. advanced resuscitation 
5. post cardiac arrest care 
6. recovery 
 
T or F: EMDS are trained medical professionals - correct answetrue 
 
a quest...
Preview 1 out of 3 pages
Add to cartthe six links of the patient care chain of survival are: - correct answe1. recognition and response activation 
2. early CPR 
3. rapid defibrillation 
4. advanced resuscitation 
5. post cardiac arrest care 
6. recovery 
 
T or F: EMDS are trained medical professionals - correct answetrue 
 
a quest...
Operational Certificate - answer--Person hired to do pesticide application 
 
Supervisory Certificate - answer--Person supervising pesticide application 
 
Three pesticide use classes - answer--General use, restricted use, permit use 
 
General use pesticides - answer--Can be purchased and used by a...
Preview 1 out of 2 pages
Add to cartOperational Certificate - answer--Person hired to do pesticide application 
 
Supervisory Certificate - answer--Person supervising pesticide application 
 
Three pesticide use classes - answer--General use, restricted use, permit use 
 
General use pesticides - answer--Can be purchased and used by a...
FAR 139-315 airport index rating A has what qualifications? - ans --less than 90' in length 5 departures 
 
If an area is not suitable for aircraft operations it is marked with? - ans --Yellow Chevrons 
 
Open flames should be strictly controlled or prohibited in the AOA within how many feet of of ...
Preview 2 out of 9 pages
Add to cartFAR 139-315 airport index rating A has what qualifications? - ans --less than 90' in length 5 departures 
 
If an area is not suitable for aircraft operations it is marked with? - ans --Yellow Chevrons 
 
Open flames should be strictly controlled or prohibited in the AOA within how many feet of of ...
What types of dedup hashes does Relativity generate? - ans --Message Body Hash 
Header Hash 
Recipient Hash 
Attachment Hash 
 
What can you exclude with inventory/filters? - ans --Domains 
File types 
File locations 
File sizes 
NIST Files 
Date ranges 
 
T or F - You can't change the settings of ...
Preview 4 out of 31 pages
Add to cartWhat types of dedup hashes does Relativity generate? - ans --Message Body Hash 
Header Hash 
Recipient Hash 
Attachment Hash 
 
What can you exclude with inventory/filters? - ans --Domains 
File types 
File locations 
File sizes 
NIST Files 
Date ranges 
 
T or F - You can't change the settings of ...
A lash extension technician should sanitize or clean their hands - Before each client 
 
Infection control procedures are used to reduce the transmission of infectious organisms such as - Bacteria, viruses, fungi, parasites 
 
 
 
During an eyelash extension application, where should the licensee co...
Preview 1 out of 4 pages
Add to cartA lash extension technician should sanitize or clean their hands - Before each client 
 
Infection control procedures are used to reduce the transmission of infectious organisms such as - Bacteria, viruses, fungi, parasites 
 
 
 
During an eyelash extension application, where should the licensee co...
blepharitis - An infection of the eyelid causing inflammation, caused by a surplus of demodex mites 
 
Conjunctivitis - inflammation of the conjunctiva (pink/red eye) due to bacterial or viral infection 
 
contact dermatitis - Skin reaction due to exposure to an allergen or irritant 
 
corneal abras...
Preview 2 out of 15 pages
Add to cartblepharitis - An infection of the eyelid causing inflammation, caused by a surplus of demodex mites 
 
Conjunctivitis - inflammation of the conjunctiva (pink/red eye) due to bacterial or viral infection 
 
contact dermatitis - Skin reaction due to exposure to an allergen or irritant 
 
corneal abras...
Eyelash Extensions - Means the application, removal, and trimming of thread like natural or synthetic fibers to an eyelash, and includes the cleansing of the eye area and lashes. Eyelash extensions do not include color agents, straightening agents, permanent wave solutions, bleaching agents, applica...
Preview 2 out of 7 pages
Add to cartEyelash Extensions - Means the application, removal, and trimming of thread like natural or synthetic fibers to an eyelash, and includes the cleansing of the eye area and lashes. Eyelash extensions do not include color agents, straightening agents, permanent wave solutions, bleaching agents, applica...
What is the definition of debris? - Vehicle parts, fluids, fragments or scattered loose material strewn on the roadway as a result of a collision. 
 
While responding to the call of a traffic collision, one of the most important things to remember is to? - Proceed quickly and safely 
 
Traffic and c...
Preview 4 out of 36 pages
Add to cartWhat is the definition of debris? - Vehicle parts, fluids, fragments or scattered loose material strewn on the roadway as a result of a collision. 
 
While responding to the call of a traffic collision, one of the most important things to remember is to? - Proceed quickly and safely 
 
Traffic and c...
1st Amendment - Amendment that dealt with freedom of speech 
 
4th Amendment - Search and seizure 
 
5th Amendment - The Right to Remain Silent/Double Jeopardy 
 
6th Amendment - Right to a speedy and public trial 
 
14th Amendment - Due Process 
 
Executive, Legislative, Judicial - Three Branches 
...
Preview 3 out of 16 pages
Add to cart1st Amendment - Amendment that dealt with freedom of speech 
 
4th Amendment - Search and seizure 
 
5th Amendment - The Right to Remain Silent/Double Jeopardy 
 
6th Amendment - Right to a speedy and public trial 
 
14th Amendment - Due Process 
 
Executive, Legislative, Judicial - Three Branches 
...
An atom has which of the following? - protons, neutrons, electrons 
 
The states of matter include which of the following? - solid, liquid, gas, plasma 
 
Endothermic reactions do which of the following? - absorb energy 
 
Exothermic reactions do which of the following? - release energy 
 
What is a...
Preview 1 out of 2 pages
Add to cartAn atom has which of the following? - protons, neutrons, electrons 
 
The states of matter include which of the following? - solid, liquid, gas, plasma 
 
Endothermic reactions do which of the following? - absorb energy 
 
Exothermic reactions do which of the following? - release energy 
 
What is a...
In the nineteenth century, imperial powers such as ( ) wanted to increase the number of colonies they controlled. They wanted to gain better and cheaper access to ( ) as well as labor. - France, natural resources 
 
military 
economic 
humanitarian and religious - military - John Hudson was the capt...
Preview 2 out of 5 pages
Add to cartIn the nineteenth century, imperial powers such as ( ) wanted to increase the number of colonies they controlled. They wanted to gain better and cheaper access to ( ) as well as labor. - France, natural resources 
 
military 
economic 
humanitarian and religious - military - John Hudson was the capt...
Most scientists believe modern human beings originated on which continent? - Africa 
 
Which was the most important factor in the development of agriculture by Neolithic people? - Access to water 
 
Why were the people in early farming communities able to do various kinds of work? - Improved farming...
Preview 2 out of 6 pages
Add to cartMost scientists believe modern human beings originated on which continent? - Africa 
 
Which was the most important factor in the development of agriculture by Neolithic people? - Access to water 
 
Why were the people in early farming communities able to do various kinds of work? - Improved farming...
What is the primary purpose of most constitutions? 
 
A. to define a moral code for people to follow 
B. to provide a substitute for government 
C. to prevent a strong central government 
D. to define and limit government power 
E. to give the government absolute power - D. 
to define and limit gov...
Preview 2 out of 8 pages
Add to cartWhat is the primary purpose of most constitutions? 
 
A. to define a moral code for people to follow 
B. to provide a substitute for government 
C. to prevent a strong central government 
D. to define and limit government power 
E. to give the government absolute power - D. 
to define and limit gov...
Origins of Government 
 
Which statement best explains why government is important? - Government exists to guide citizens' behavior and protect them from harm. 
 
Match each economic ideology with its correct example. - a business is directed by the government to ensure a fairer society: Socialism ...
Preview 2 out of 7 pages
Add to cartOrigins of Government 
 
Which statement best explains why government is important? - Government exists to guide citizens' behavior and protect them from harm. 
 
Match each economic ideology with its correct example. - a business is directed by the government to ensure a fairer society: Socialism ...
capacity - grants training to citizens who want to follow a policy but are unable to do so 
 
incentive - provides citizens with benefits for following a policy 
 
authority - creates stiff penalties or fines to force citizens to adjust to policy 
 
hortatory - calls on citizens' morality or decenc...
Preview 1 out of 2 pages
Add to cartcapacity - grants training to citizens who want to follow a policy but are unable to do so 
 
incentive - provides citizens with benefits for following a policy 
 
authority - creates stiff penalties or fines to force citizens to adjust to policy 
 
hortatory - calls on citizens' morality or decenc...
Pulmonary artery - ans--One of two arteries that carry venous (oxygen poor) blood from heart to lungs 
 
What type of intubation is preferred with emesis with aspiration? - ans--ETT. LMA or combitube acceptable. 
 
What emergency would a cricothyrotomy typically be performed? - ans--Airway obstru...
Preview 3 out of 20 pages
Add to cartPulmonary artery - ans--One of two arteries that carry venous (oxygen poor) blood from heart to lungs 
 
What type of intubation is preferred with emesis with aspiration? - ans--ETT. LMA or combitube acceptable. 
 
What emergency would a cricothyrotomy typically be performed? - ans--Airway obstru...
Hypoxia - Deficiency of oxygen in body tissue 
Give oxygen prior to anesthesia 
 
Laryngospasm - Reflex of vocal cords to prevent passage of foreign material (blood/saliva). 
 
Treatment of laryngospasm - 1. 100% O2 
2. Suction 
3. Administer succinylcholine (10-20mg) IV (may precipitate Malignan...
Preview 2 out of 13 pages
Add to cartHypoxia - Deficiency of oxygen in body tissue 
Give oxygen prior to anesthesia 
 
Laryngospasm - Reflex of vocal cords to prevent passage of foreign material (blood/saliva). 
 
Treatment of laryngospasm - 1. 100% O2 
2. Suction 
3. Administer succinylcholine (10-20mg) IV (may precipitate Malignan...
Abandonment Condition - A condition often contained in property insurance policies that states that the insured cannot abandon damaged property to the insurer and demand to be reimbursed for its full value. 
 
Accident - A loss that occurs at a specific time and place 
 
Actual Cash Value (ACV) - To...
Preview 2 out of 10 pages
Add to cartAbandonment Condition - A condition often contained in property insurance policies that states that the insured cannot abandon damaged property to the insurer and demand to be reimbursed for its full value. 
 
Accident - A loss that occurs at a specific time and place 
 
Actual Cash Value (ACV) - To...
The formula for determining the area of a trapezoid is: 
 
Select the single best answer: 
A. [(Base1 + Base2) ÷ 2] x Height 
B. ½ Base x Height 
C. Base x Height 
D.
Preview 2 out of 7 pages
Add to cartThe formula for determining the area of a trapezoid is: 
 
Select the single best answer: 
A. [(Base1 + Base2) ÷ 2] x Height 
B. ½ Base x Height 
C. Base x Height 
D.
How are systemic medications administered? - Orally, injection (subcutaneously or intramuscularly) or intravenously 
 
How should drops be properly instilled into a patient's eye? - Into the lower cul de sac (lower fornix) 
 
What does the term idiosyncrasy refer to with ophthalmic drugs? - A bizar...
Preview 4 out of 69 pages
Add to cartHow are systemic medications administered? - Orally, injection (subcutaneously or intramuscularly) or intravenously 
 
How should drops be properly instilled into a patient's eye? - Into the lower cul de sac (lower fornix) 
 
What does the term idiosyncrasy refer to with ophthalmic drugs? - A bizar...
A history is obtained by: 
a. asking a series of organized & specitic questions 
b. observing the patient's actions in the exam room 
c. allowing the patient to discuss anything he or she wishes 
d. asking the same question of each patient during every exam -ans-- A. asking a series of organized...
Preview 3 out of 19 pages
Add to cartA history is obtained by: 
a. asking a series of organized & specitic questions 
b. observing the patient's actions in the exam room 
c. allowing the patient to discuss anything he or she wishes 
d. asking the same question of each patient during every exam -ans-- A. asking a series of organized...
Name the nine components of the ophthalmic history. - Chief complaint, present illness, past ocular history, ocular medications, general medical and surgical history, systemic medications, allergies, social history, and family history. 
 
Why is it important to specifically ask a patient about the m...
Preview 3 out of 17 pages
Add to cartName the nine components of the ophthalmic history. - Chief complaint, present illness, past ocular history, ocular medications, general medical and surgical history, systemic medications, allergies, social history, and family history. 
 
Why is it important to specifically ask a patient about the m...
Vitreous - Jelly-like substance that fills the middle of the eye. 
 
Eye Floaters - Tiny clumps of cells or other material inside the vitreous. These look like small specks, strings or clouds moving in your field of vision. 
 
Age-Related Macular Degeneration (AMD) - Leading cause of severe, irrever...
Preview 2 out of 10 pages
Add to cartVitreous - Jelly-like substance that fills the middle of the eye. 
 
Eye Floaters - Tiny clumps of cells or other material inside the vitreous. These look like small specks, strings or clouds moving in your field of vision. 
 
Age-Related Macular Degeneration (AMD) - Leading cause of severe, irrever...
QUESTION #1 
Which of the following conditions is NOT hereditary? 
A. Migraines 
B. Diabetes 
C. Nystagmus 
D. Conjunctivitis - D. Conjunctivitis 
 
QUESTION #2 
Which part of the patient examination is performed by asking specific questions in an orderly sequence? - A. History 
 
QUESTION #3 
What...
Preview 3 out of 17 pages
Add to cartQUESTION #1 
Which of the following conditions is NOT hereditary? 
A. Migraines 
B. Diabetes 
C. Nystagmus 
D. Conjunctivitis - D. Conjunctivitis 
 
QUESTION #2 
Which part of the patient examination is performed by asking specific questions in an orderly sequence? - A. History 
 
QUESTION #3 
What...
Choose the direct organizational plan for most persuasive messages to U.S. audiences. 
 a. True 
 b. False - a. True 
 
Choose the ___ plan for most persuasive messages to U.S. audiences. 
 a. indirect 
 b. neutral 
 c. direct 
 d. All of these are correct. - c. direct 
 
Service recovery refers...
Preview 1 out of 3 pages
Add to cartChoose the direct organizational plan for most persuasive messages to U.S. audiences. 
 a. True 
 b. False - a. True 
 
Choose the ___ plan for most persuasive messages to U.S. audiences. 
 a. indirect 
 b. neutral 
 c. direct 
 d. All of these are correct. - c. direct 
 
Service recovery refers...
entrepreneurship - the pursuit of lucrative opportunities by enterprising individuals 
 
small business - a business having fewer than 100 employees, independently owned and operated, not dominant in its field, and not characterized by many innovative practices 
 
entrepreneurial venture - a new bus...
Preview 1 out of 2 pages
Add to cartentrepreneurship - the pursuit of lucrative opportunities by enterprising individuals 
 
small business - a business having fewer than 100 employees, independently owned and operated, not dominant in its field, and not characterized by many innovative practices 
 
entrepreneurial venture - a new bus...
Bounded Rationality - the view that people are bounded in their decision-making capabilities, including access to limited information, limited information processing, and tendency toward satisficing rather than maximizing when making choices 
 
Cognitive Dissonance - an emotional experience caused b...
Preview 1 out of 2 pages
Add to cartBounded Rationality - the view that people are bounded in their decision-making capabilities, including access to limited information, limited information processing, and tendency toward satisficing rather than maximizing when making choices 
 
Cognitive Dissonance - an emotional experience caused b...
Which of the following statements describes how bookkeeping is different from accounting - Bookkeeping is only one part of the accounting process 
 
Which of the following terms describes the scenario of a company earning less than the amount the company spends - Loss 
 
Which of the following types...
Preview 1 out of 4 pages
Add to cartWhich of the following statements describes how bookkeeping is different from accounting - Bookkeeping is only one part of the accounting process 
 
Which of the following terms describes the scenario of a company earning less than the amount the company spends - Loss 
 
Which of the following types...
The work sheet is used to pull together all the information needed to prepare the financial statements and complete the end-of-period activities. - True 
 
A single rule under a column of amounts means that the amounts are to be added or subtracted - True 
 
the work sheet is prepared in pen because...
Preview 2 out of 6 pages
Add to cartThe work sheet is used to pull together all the information needed to prepare the financial statements and complete the end-of-period activities. - True 
 
A single rule under a column of amounts means that the amounts are to be added or subtracted - True 
 
the work sheet is prepared in pen because...
Free Enterprise System - People are free to produce the goods and services they choose 
 
Profit - When a business earns more money than it spends 
 
Loss - When a business spends more money to operate than it earns from the sale of goods and services 
 
Entrepreneurs - Transform ideas for products ...
Preview 2 out of 11 pages
Add to cartFree Enterprise System - People are free to produce the goods and services they choose 
 
Profit - When a business earns more money than it spends 
 
Loss - When a business spends more money to operate than it earns from the sale of goods and services 
 
Entrepreneurs - Transform ideas for products ...
which of the following accurately defines mathematics? - study of numbers, quantity, shapes and the relationships among them 
 
which of the following professionals apply math by estimating yeild? - military officers 
 
according to the segment, programmers and software engineers apply math in which...
Preview 1 out of 4 pages
Add to cartwhich of the following accurately defines mathematics? - study of numbers, quantity, shapes and the relationships among them 
 
which of the following professionals apply math by estimating yeild? - military officers 
 
according to the segment, programmers and software engineers apply math in which...
a CNC can provide clients non-medical nutrition information & behavior change - true 
 
every region requires that a nutrition coach work under the supervision of a registered dietitian - false 
 
the CNC can provide specific meal plans for clients - false 
 
the CNC can recommend specific supplemen...
Preview 3 out of 21 pages
Add to carta CNC can provide clients non-medical nutrition information & behavior change - true 
 
every region requires that a nutrition coach work under the supervision of a registered dietitian - false 
 
the CNC can provide specific meal plans for clients - false 
 
the CNC can recommend specific supplemen...
According to the SCOFF eating disorder assessment, what is the minimum number of positive answers which might indicate an eating disorder? 
 
A. 1 
B. 2 
C. 3 
D. 5 - B. 2 
 
Vitamin B9 - Folic Acid (Folate) 
 
According to the scope of practice for a Nutrition Coach, which is an example of an appro...
Preview 3 out of 17 pages
Add to cartAccording to the SCOFF eating disorder assessment, what is the minimum number of positive answers which might indicate an eating disorder? 
 
A. 1 
B. 2 
C. 3 
D. 5 - B. 2 
 
Vitamin B9 - Folic Acid (Folate) 
 
According to the scope of practice for a Nutrition Coach, which is an example of an appro...
A nutrition coach can provide clients nonmedical nutrition information and behavior guidance. - True. 
 
Every region requires that a nutrition coach work under the supervision of a registered dietitian. - False 
 
The nutrition coach can provide specific meal plans for their client - False. 
 
Whic...
Preview 3 out of 17 pages
Add to cartA nutrition coach can provide clients nonmedical nutrition information and behavior guidance. - True. 
 
Every region requires that a nutrition coach work under the supervision of a registered dietitian. - False 
 
The nutrition coach can provide specific meal plans for their client - False. 
 
Whic...
How do you find the perimeter and area of a rectangle? - P = 2l + 2w 
P = 2 (l + w) 
A = lw 
 
How do you find the area of a parallelogram? - A = bh 
 
How do you find the circumference and area of a circle? - C = 2 x pi x r 
C = pi x d 
A = pi x r^2 
 
What is the Pythagorean Theorem? - a^2 + b^2 =...
Preview 1 out of 4 pages
Add to cartHow do you find the perimeter and area of a rectangle? - P = 2l + 2w 
P = 2 (l + w) 
A = lw 
 
How do you find the area of a parallelogram? - A = bh 
 
How do you find the circumference and area of a circle? - C = 2 x pi x r 
C = pi x d 
A = pi x r^2 
 
What is the Pythagorean Theorem? - a^2 + b^2 =...
What are the components of a COMPLETE health assessment? - CC, HPI, PMH, FH, Social Hx, ROS, Genogram 
 
What are the components of a FOCUSED health assessment? - CC, HPI, PMH, FH/SH that pertains to complaint, specific system ROS 
 
Foundation of the HPI is the PQRST format; what does it stand for?...
Preview 2 out of 7 pages
Add to cartWhat are the components of a COMPLETE health assessment? - CC, HPI, PMH, FH, Social Hx, ROS, Genogram 
 
What are the components of a FOCUSED health assessment? - CC, HPI, PMH, FH/SH that pertains to complaint, specific system ROS 
 
Foundation of the HPI is the PQRST format; what does it stand for?...
What is an important quality for a nurse to have to conduct an effective patient-centered interview? - Ability to adapt to the patient 
 
What part of the history is being assessed when the nurse asks, "How does your pain affect your daily routine?" - History of present illness 
 
What information...
Preview 1 out of 4 pages
Add to cartWhat is an important quality for a nurse to have to conduct an effective patient-centered interview? - Ability to adapt to the patient 
 
What part of the history is being assessed when the nurse asks, "How does your pain affect your daily routine?" - History of present illness 
 
What information...
Ocular Fundus - Done with room darkened, "Look at my shoulder not the light.", Elicit Red Reflex 8-10" away with lens at Zero, Come in really close with hand on pts forehead, Close in with lens in the black (+) & focus on the optic disc at the nasal side of the retina, Change lens to Red (-) to v...
Preview 2 out of 7 pages
Add to cartOcular Fundus - Done with room darkened, "Look at my shoulder not the light.", Elicit Red Reflex 8-10" away with lens at Zero, Come in really close with hand on pts forehead, Close in with lens in the black (+) & focus on the optic disc at the nasal side of the retina, Change lens to Red (-) to v...
Cranial Nerve 1 - Olfactory (smell) 
 
Cranial Nerve 2 - optic nerve 
 
Cranial Nerve 3, 4, 6 - 3. Oculomotor, eye movement, motor 
4. Trochlear nerve 
6. Abducens nerve 
 
"Follow my finger, 
 
Cranial Nerve 5 - Trigeminal 
 
innervates muscles for mastication (tri- eat 3 meals a day) 
"Clench yo...
Preview 1 out of 4 pages
Add to cartCranial Nerve 1 - Olfactory (smell) 
 
Cranial Nerve 2 - optic nerve 
 
Cranial Nerve 3, 4, 6 - 3. Oculomotor, eye movement, motor 
4. Trochlear nerve 
6. Abducens nerve 
 
"Follow my finger, 
 
Cranial Nerve 5 - Trigeminal 
 
innervates muscles for mastication (tri- eat 3 meals a day) 
"Clench yo...
Inspect 
Palpate 
Percussion 
Auscultation 
Function - specific techniques for that area 
Documentation of area - Systematic assessment of HEENT 
 
Size 
Shape 
Symmetry 
Position 
Texture and distribution of hair - Head and scalp inspection 
 
Head for masses, tenderness 
Scalp mobility - Head and ...
Preview 2 out of 12 pages
Add to cartInspect 
Palpate 
Percussion 
Auscultation 
Function - specific techniques for that area 
Documentation of area - Systematic assessment of HEENT 
 
Size 
Shape 
Symmetry 
Position 
Texture and distribution of hair - Head and scalp inspection 
 
Head for masses, tenderness 
Scalp mobility - Head and ...
Ms. Pammy is a 36-year-old woman who presents to your office with a complaint of depression. She is experiencing anger, fear, and sorrow. Which of the following regulates feelings of anger, fear, and sorrow? 
A. Limbic system 
B. Corpus callosum 
C. Temporal lobes 
Caudate nucleus - A. Limbic system...
Preview 4 out of 100 pages
Add to cartMs. Pammy is a 36-year-old woman who presents to your office with a complaint of depression. She is experiencing anger, fear, and sorrow. Which of the following regulates feelings of anger, fear, and sorrow? 
A. Limbic system 
B. Corpus callosum 
C. Temporal lobes 
Caudate nucleus - A. Limbic system...
Cellulitis - Diffuse, acute, infection of the skin and subcutaneous tissue 
 
Psoriasis - Chronic and recurrent disease of keratinocyte proliferation 
 
Ptosis - drooping or falling of the upper eyelid 
 
pterygium - pinkish, triangular tissue growth on the cornea of the eye 
 
hordeolum - an acute ...
Preview 2 out of 5 pages
Add to cartCellulitis - Diffuse, acute, infection of the skin and subcutaneous tissue 
 
Psoriasis - Chronic and recurrent disease of keratinocyte proliferation 
 
Ptosis - drooping or falling of the upper eyelid 
 
pterygium - pinkish, triangular tissue growth on the cornea of the eye 
 
hordeolum - an acute ...
During replacement of life insurance, a replacing insurer must do which of the following? 
 
A Send a copy of the Notice Regarding Replacement to the Department of Insurance 
B Obtain a list of all life insurance policies that will be replaced 
C Guarantee a replacement for each existing policy 
D D...
Preview 2 out of 9 pages
Add to cartDuring replacement of life insurance, a replacing insurer must do which of the following? 
 
A Send a copy of the Notice Regarding Replacement to the Department of Insurance 
B Obtain a list of all life insurance policies that will be replaced 
C Guarantee a replacement for each existing policy 
D D...
A retail business, owned by shareholders and have centralized decision making for their multiple store locations is called - corporation 
 
In the retail product cycle, what step comes after distribution and products? - selling 
 
What item is a retail product - car tire 
 
A large facility that man...
Preview 1 out of 3 pages
Add to cartA retail business, owned by shareholders and have centralized decision making for their multiple store locations is called - corporation 
 
In the retail product cycle, what step comes after distribution and products? - selling 
 
What item is a retail product - car tire 
 
A large facility that man...
Account Takeover - answer--A type of economic fraud in which thieves steal customer login information and then use it to access their retailer loyalty accounts. Also called loyalty fraud. 
 
Active Listening - answer--A structured from of listening and responding that focuses the attention on the sp...
Preview 2 out of 12 pages
Add to cartAccount Takeover - answer--A type of economic fraud in which thieves steal customer login information and then use it to access their retailer loyalty accounts. Also called loyalty fraud. 
 
Active Listening - answer--A structured from of listening and responding that focuses the attention on the sp...
osmosis - movement of water across a semi-permeable membrane 
 
osmotic pressure: definition - the force that attracts water across a semi-permeable membrane 
 
water attractors in osmosis - - sodium 
- albumin 
 
passive diffusion - - solutes crossing a semi-permeable membrane down a concentration ...
Preview 2 out of 10 pages
Add to cartosmosis - movement of water across a semi-permeable membrane 
 
osmotic pressure: definition - the force that attracts water across a semi-permeable membrane 
 
water attractors in osmosis - - sodium 
- albumin 
 
passive diffusion - - solutes crossing a semi-permeable membrane down a concentration ...
A pathology report identifies abnormal changes in the size, shape, and organization of mature cells. How would the nurse best classify these changes? - Dysplasia 
 
Which cellular change occurs in the liver of someone who has had a lobe of the liver removed? - Regeneration 
 
What does the nurse und...
Preview 1 out of 3 pages
Add to cartA pathology report identifies abnormal changes in the size, shape, and organization of mature cells. How would the nurse best classify these changes? - Dysplasia 
 
Which cellular change occurs in the liver of someone who has had a lobe of the liver removed? - Regeneration 
 
What does the nurse und...
Dominant - What term best describes an allele with an observable defect? 
 
Turner Syndrome - What syndrome describes a woman born with short stature, webbing of the neck, sparse body hair, and narrowing of the aorta? 
 
True - A child born with an autosomal dominant disease was most likely produced...
Preview 2 out of 7 pages
Add to cartDominant - What term best describes an allele with an observable defect? 
 
Turner Syndrome - What syndrome describes a woman born with short stature, webbing of the neck, sparse body hair, and narrowing of the aorta? 
 
True - A child born with an autosomal dominant disease was most likely produced...
A nurse is providing teaching about the gastrostomy tube feedings to the parents of a school age child. Which of the following instructions should the nurse take? 
A. Administer the feeding over 30 min. 
B. Place the child in as supine position after the feeding. 
C. Charge the feeding bag and tubin...
Preview 4 out of 60 pages
Add to cartA nurse is providing teaching about the gastrostomy tube feedings to the parents of a school age child. Which of the following instructions should the nurse take? 
A. Administer the feeding over 30 min. 
B. Place the child in as supine position after the feeding. 
C. Charge the feeding bag and tubin...
A nurse in a provider's office is reviewing a female client's medical record during a routine visit. The nurse should recommend increasing dietary intake of which of the following vitamins? (Exhibit: H&P: postmenopausal, hx DVT and iron deficiency anemia, works indoors, consumes 1-2 alcoholic beve...
Preview 3 out of 26 pages
Add to cartA nurse in a provider's office is reviewing a female client's medical record during a routine visit. The nurse should recommend increasing dietary intake of which of the following vitamins? (Exhibit: H&P: postmenopausal, hx DVT and iron deficiency anemia, works indoors, consumes 1-2 alcoholic beve...
SITEWORK, FOOTING, AND FONDATIONS - FIRST SECTION 
 
A foundation drain shall extend past the outside edge of the footing at least how far? - 12 inches 
 
What are batter boards? - Stakes and ledger boards marking building lines. 
 
What is the purpose of a cove or can't strip at a foundation joint...
Preview 2 out of 6 pages
Add to cartSITEWORK, FOOTING, AND FONDATIONS - FIRST SECTION 
 
A foundation drain shall extend past the outside edge of the footing at least how far? - 12 inches 
 
What are batter boards? - Stakes and ledger boards marking building lines. 
 
What is the purpose of a cove or can't strip at a foundation joint...
In DNA, adenine always pairs with ________. 
 
- Thymine 
- Guanine 
- Uracil 
- Cytosine - - Thymine 
 
DNA is built from which of the following? 
 
- Nucleosides 
- Genes 
- Purines 
- Nucleotide 
- Codons - - Nucleotide 
 
The double helix of DNA is stabilized mainly by __________. 
 
- Ioni...
Preview 2 out of 5 pages
Add to cartIn DNA, adenine always pairs with ________. 
 
- Thymine 
- Guanine 
- Uracil 
- Cytosine - - Thymine 
 
DNA is built from which of the following? 
 
- Nucleosides 
- Genes 
- Purines 
- Nucleotide 
- Codons - - Nucleotide 
 
The double helix of DNA is stabilized mainly by __________. 
 
- Ioni...
Guanine - ans --Base that pairs with cytosine in RNA 
 
RNA - ans --Nucleic acid responsible for using genetic information to produce proteins 
 
DNA - ans --Nucleic acid built from nucleotides 
 
Z-form helix - ans --DNA structure stabilized mainly by hydrogen bonds 
 
Ribose - ans --Pentose sugar ...
Preview 1 out of 2 pages
Add to cartGuanine - ans --Base that pairs with cytosine in RNA 
 
RNA - ans --Nucleic acid responsible for using genetic information to produce proteins 
 
DNA - ans --Nucleic acid built from nucleotides 
 
Z-form helix - ans --DNA structure stabilized mainly by hydrogen bonds 
 
Ribose - ans --Pentose sugar ...
A sales clerk entering details of a customers order is an example of... - Processing information 
 
In some companies some office workers - Perform a wide variety of tasks, focus on a few specialized tasks, and perform only administrative support tasks 
 
Maintaining calendars is an example of - Man...
Preview 2 out of 12 pages
Add to cartA sales clerk entering details of a customers order is an example of... - Processing information 
 
In some companies some office workers - Perform a wide variety of tasks, focus on a few specialized tasks, and perform only administrative support tasks 
 
Maintaining calendars is an example of - Man...
1) A capacity plate shows the: - Maximum horsepower and weight allowed 
 
2) What is the minimum height of the state registration numbers that are displayed on a boat? - 3" 
 
3) If a boat transfers ownership, is destroyed, lost, stolen or recovered, the owner must notify the agency which issued th...
Preview 1 out of 4 pages
Add to cart1) A capacity plate shows the: - Maximum horsepower and weight allowed 
 
2) What is the minimum height of the state registration numbers that are displayed on a boat? - 3" 
 
3) If a boat transfers ownership, is destroyed, lost, stolen or recovered, the owner must notify the agency which issued th...
How should a boat's registration number and validation decal be displayed? - on both sides of the bow 
 
What are the most important factors in choosing a PFD? - weight and chest size 
 
Information on the capacity plate - number of people, max weight, sometimes max horsepower 
 
Best way to find o...
Preview 1 out of 4 pages
Add to cartHow should a boat's registration number and validation decal be displayed? - on both sides of the bow 
 
What are the most important factors in choosing a PFD? - weight and chest size 
 
Information on the capacity plate - number of people, max weight, sometimes max horsepower 
 
Best way to find o...
Left side of the boat - Port 
 
Right side of the boat - Starboard 
 
Front of boat - Bow 
 
Back of boat - Stern 
 
Body of boat - Hull 
 
Upper edge of a boat's side - Gunwale 
 
Maximum width of a vessel - Beam 
 
Distance from water to lowest point of boat where water could come on board - Free...
Preview 2 out of 7 pages
Add to cartLeft side of the boat - Port 
 
Right side of the boat - Starboard 
 
Front of boat - Bow 
 
Back of boat - Stern 
 
Body of boat - Hull 
 
Upper edge of a boat's side - Gunwale 
 
Maximum width of a vessel - Beam 
 
Distance from water to lowest point of boat where water could come on board - Free...
CHAPTER ONE - KNOW YOUR BOAT 
 
The port side of the vessel is the _______ side. - Left 
 
The starboard side of the vessel is the _______ side. - Right 
 
Basic types of vessel hulls can be described as ______. - Displacement & Planing 
 
Three basic hull shapes: - I. Round bottom 
II. Flat bottom ...
Preview 2 out of 7 pages
Add to cartCHAPTER ONE - KNOW YOUR BOAT 
 
The port side of the vessel is the _______ side. - Left 
 
The starboard side of the vessel is the _______ side. - Right 
 
Basic types of vessel hulls can be described as ______. - Displacement & Planing 
 
Three basic hull shapes: - I. Round bottom 
II. Flat bottom ...
During a class discussion, a teacher asks a student to evaluate President Roosevelt's Public Works Association for its effectiveness as a means to alleviate unemployment while benefiting the community. How long should the teacher wait for a response? - answer--10 Seconds 
Why? Ten seconds is an app...
Preview 1 out of 4 pages
Add to cartDuring a class discussion, a teacher asks a student to evaluate President Roosevelt's Public Works Association for its effectiveness as a means to alleviate unemployment while benefiting the community. How long should the teacher wait for a response? - answer--10 Seconds 
Why? Ten seconds is an app...
An 11th grade class has just finished reading the Grapes of Wrath by John Steinbeck. The BEST way to assess students' understanding of the book is _____? - A homework assignment that requires the students reflect on facts and key points 
 
Because the assessment is aligned with lesson content. The...
Preview 2 out of 5 pages
Add to cartAn 11th grade class has just finished reading the Grapes of Wrath by John Steinbeck. The BEST way to assess students' understanding of the book is _____? - A homework assignment that requires the students reflect on facts and key points 
 
Because the assessment is aligned with lesson content. The...
What type of question would most likely generate the widest range of answers and discussions among students? - Why would the author have ended the book this way? "Why" questions tend to be the most open-ended. 
 
Why should a teacher always spend time explaining classroom rules during the first fe...
Preview 2 out of 6 pages
Add to cartWhat type of question would most likely generate the widest range of answers and discussions among students? - Why would the author have ended the book this way? "Why" questions tend to be the most open-ended. 
 
Why should a teacher always spend time explaining classroom rules during the first fe...
2.1.01 
Communicates Effectively - Stimulates student interest by connecting prior knowledge and students' personal experience to larger concepts. 
 
2.1.02 
Communicates Effectively - Explains how current lessons build upon previously learned knowledge and skills. 
 
2.1.03 
Communicates Effect...
Preview 2 out of 5 pages
Add to cart2.1.01 
Communicates Effectively - Stimulates student interest by connecting prior knowledge and students' personal experience to larger concepts. 
 
2.1.02 
Communicates Effectively - Explains how current lessons build upon previously learned knowledge and skills. 
 
2.1.03 
Communicates Effect...
MOST effective method for closing a lesson? - The students identify the important topics and conclusions in group discussions. 
 
Why: Closure is best done by students so that the teacher can assess the effect of the lesson. It needs to be done as a group so that the teacher can monitor and adjust b...
Preview 2 out of 13 pages
Add to cartMOST effective method for closing a lesson? - The students identify the important topics and conclusions in group discussions. 
 
Why: Closure is best done by students so that the teacher can assess the effect of the lesson. It needs to be done as a group so that the teacher can monitor and adjust b...
Discipline - Process - correct answerStudent oriented, may give different consequences for same offense depending on student history 
 
Discipline - Product - correct answerRule oriented, applies rules consistently to all students regardless of student history 
 
Lesson Agenda - correct answerWhat s...
Preview 1 out of 4 pages
Add to cartDiscipline - Process - correct answerStudent oriented, may give different consequences for same offense depending on student history 
 
Discipline - Product - correct answerRule oriented, applies rules consistently to all students regardless of student history 
 
Lesson Agenda - correct answerWhat s...
Type of inspection that occurs after a weather event - Special Inspection 
 
Type of airfield marking with yellow background and black ladder shape - ILS critical area marking 
 
The national incident management system consist of three areas: ICS, joint Public and - Multi agency coordination 
 
Rezo...
Preview 2 out of 6 pages
Add to cartType of inspection that occurs after a weather event - Special Inspection 
 
Type of airfield marking with yellow background and black ladder shape - ILS critical area marking 
 
The national incident management system consist of three areas: ICS, joint Public and - Multi agency coordination 
 
Rezo...
Airport Certification Manual (ACM) - methods airport management can use to ensure airport safety and efficiency 
 
Safety Management System (SMS) 4 Elements - 1. Safety Policy 
2. Safety Risk Management 
3. Safety Assurance 
4. Safety Promotion 
 
Safety Policy - communicates managements commitment ...
Preview 3 out of 19 pages
Add to cartAirport Certification Manual (ACM) - methods airport management can use to ensure airport safety and efficiency 
 
Safety Management System (SMS) 4 Elements - 1. Safety Policy 
2. Safety Risk Management 
3. Safety Assurance 
4. Safety Promotion 
 
Safety Policy - communicates managements commitment ...
Describe the role of an Airport Executive in ensuring a safe operating environment, particularly as related to Title 14 CFR Part 139. - Module Objective 1 
 
What is the primary role of airport management? - Operate airport in a safe and efficient manner in accordance to industry standards and proce...
Preview 3 out of 17 pages
Add to cartDescribe the role of an Airport Executive in ensuring a safe operating environment, particularly as related to Title 14 CFR Part 139. - Module Objective 1 
 
What is the primary role of airport management? - Operate airport in a safe and efficient manner in accordance to industry standards and proce...
What are airport tenants and users required to adhere to? - Rules and Regulations 
 
What is the benefit of grant assurances to the airport user? - Ensures adequate level of safe and effective service 
 
What are examples of non-aeronautical revenue sources? - Concessions, parking lot charges, renta...
Preview 4 out of 89 pages
Add to cartWhat are airport tenants and users required to adhere to? - Rules and Regulations 
 
What is the benefit of grant assurances to the airport user? - Ensures adequate level of safe and effective service 
 
What are examples of non-aeronautical revenue sources? - Concessions, parking lot charges, renta...
The AAAE Certified Member Modules are materials airport managers can use as... 
- Airport regulation 
- Airport case Law 
- Final authoritative documents 
- A daily reference and field guide - A daily reference and field guide 
 
Which statement is False? 
- Each Airport has its own unique geography...
Preview 4 out of 47 pages
Add to cartThe AAAE Certified Member Modules are materials airport managers can use as... 
- Airport regulation 
- Airport case Law 
- Final authoritative documents 
- A daily reference and field guide - A daily reference and field guide 
 
Which statement is False? 
- Each Airport has its own unique geography...
Why Does the FAA encourages GA airports to meet the Part 139 standards - To maintain best practices and as a method to adhere to Grant Assurance 19, Operations and Maintenance 
 
What is the most important duties for an airport operator - life safety 
 
What is required for a commerical service airp...
Preview 1 out of 3 pages
Add to cartWhy Does the FAA encourages GA airports to meet the Part 139 standards - To maintain best practices and as a method to adhere to Grant Assurance 19, Operations and Maintenance 
 
What is the most important duties for an airport operator - life safety 
 
What is required for a commerical service airp...
What are the components of a safety operation and how does SMS fit in? - Risk identification 
Set of standards 
Reporting system 
Investigation and resolution 
Safety Management System 
 
What is Part 139 and which airports does it apply to? - Part 139 is essentially the strictest safety code 
 
It ...
Preview 2 out of 7 pages
Add to cartWhat are the components of a safety operation and how does SMS fit in? - Risk identification 
Set of standards 
Reporting system 
Investigation and resolution 
Safety Management System 
 
What is Part 139 and which airports does it apply to? - Part 139 is essentially the strictest safety code 
 
It ...
Air Commerce Act of 1926 - Created a new Aeronautics Branch known as the CAA (the precursor of the FAA) 
 
Function of the Civil Aeronautics Board (CAB) - Make safety rules and economic regulation of the airlines 
 
Deregulation of the airlines created this airline design - Hub and spoke system 
 
W...
Preview 2 out of 10 pages
Add to cartAir Commerce Act of 1926 - Created a new Aeronautics Branch known as the CAA (the precursor of the FAA) 
 
Function of the Civil Aeronautics Board (CAB) - Make safety rules and economic regulation of the airlines 
 
Deregulation of the airlines created this airline design - Hub and spoke system 
 
W...
How did the railroads start commercial aviation? - ANS--The railroad i dustry accused the government of creating a monopoly on carrying mail (by air) and convinced Congressman Clyde Kelly to sponsor the Air Mail Act of 1925. Authorizing the US govt. to contract airmail routes to private companies. 
...
Preview 3 out of 18 pages
Add to cartHow did the railroads start commercial aviation? - ANS--The railroad i dustry accused the government of creating a monopoly on carrying mail (by air) and convinced Congressman Clyde Kelly to sponsor the Air Mail Act of 1925. Authorizing the US govt. to contract airmail routes to private companies. 
...
Who is the ultimate customer of the airport? - pilot 
 
What did the "Air Mail Act of 1925" do? - -AKA: The Kelly Act 
-U.S. Gov. could contract mail to private companies. 
-Beginning of Commercial Air Service 
-Started the thought that only those that use aviation should pay for it. 
 
What did t...
Preview 2 out of 15 pages
Add to cartWho is the ultimate customer of the airport? - pilot 
 
What did the "Air Mail Act of 1925" do? - -AKA: The Kelly Act 
-U.S. Gov. could contract mail to private companies. 
-Beginning of Commercial Air Service 
-Started the thought that only those that use aviation should pay for it. 
 
What did t...
Air Mail Act of 1925 (Kelly Act) - The railroad industry accused the government of creating a 
monopoly on carrying mail (by air) and convinced Congressman Clyde Kelly of Pennsylvania to sponsor the ______. 
 
The Kelly Act - Commonly referred to as ______, it authorized the postmaster general to co...
Preview 1 out of 3 pages
Add to cartAir Mail Act of 1925 (Kelly Act) - The railroad industry accused the government of creating a 
monopoly on carrying mail (by air) and convinced Congressman Clyde Kelly of Pennsylvania to sponsor the ______. 
 
The Kelly Act - Commonly referred to as ______, it authorized the postmaster general to co...
Glaucoma - increased intraocular pressure 
 
fluorescein staining - applying fluorescein eye drops to cornea to look for corneal abrasions 
 
Allergic Conjunctivitis cause - allergens 
 
Suppurative conjunctivitis causes - s. aureus, s. pneumoniae, and h. influenza 
 
Viral conjunctivitis (pink eye)...
Preview 1 out of 3 pages
Add to cartGlaucoma - increased intraocular pressure 
 
fluorescein staining - applying fluorescein eye drops to cornea to look for corneal abrasions 
 
Allergic Conjunctivitis cause - allergens 
 
Suppurative conjunctivitis causes - s. aureus, s. pneumoniae, and h. influenza 
 
Viral conjunctivitis (pink eye)...
acute cough duration - less than 3 weeks 
 
common causes of acute cough - - respiratory infection 
- COPD exacerbation 
- asthma exacerbation 
- pneumonia 
- PE 
 
subacute cough duration - 3-8 weeks 
 
chronic cough - 8 weeks 
 
Chronic cough causes - 1. chronic conditions (asthma, COPD) 
2. use o...
Preview 1 out of 3 pages
Add to cartacute cough duration - less than 3 weeks 
 
common causes of acute cough - - respiratory infection 
- COPD exacerbation 
- asthma exacerbation 
- pneumonia 
- PE 
 
subacute cough duration - 3-8 weeks 
 
chronic cough - 8 weeks 
 
Chronic cough causes - 1. chronic conditions (asthma, COPD) 
2. use o...
Stuvia customers have reviewed more than 700,000 summaries. This how you know that you are buying the best documents.
You can quickly pay through EFT, credit card or Stuvia-credit for the summaries. There is no membership needed.
Your fellow students write the study notes themselves, which is why the documents are always reliable and up-to-date. This ensures you quickly get to the core!
You get a PDF, available immediately after your purchase. The purchased document is accessible anytime, anywhere and indefinitely through your profile.
Our satisfaction guarantee ensures that you always find a study document that suits you well. You fill out a form, and our customer service team takes care of the rest.
Stuvia is a marketplace, so you are not buying this document from us, but from seller AGRADEPROMASTER. Stuvia facilitates payment to the seller.
No, you only buy this summary for R755,24. You're not tied to anything after your purchase.
4.6 stars on Google & Trustpilot (+1000 reviews)
75632 documents were sold in the last 30 days
Founded in 2010, the go-to place to buy summaries for 14 years now