A 16 year old boy present to the office with complaints of low back pain after lifting heavy boxes. In discussing with him proper body mechanics to prevent future injuries, the clinician should advise which of the following?
• Hold boxes away from your body at arm's length
• Bend your knees...
a 16 year old boy present to the office with complaints of low back pain after lifting heavy boxes in discussing with him proper body mechanics to prevent
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511 Week 5 Quiz
A 16 year old boy present to the office with complaints of low back pain after lifting
heavy boxes. In discussing with him proper body mechanics to prevent future injuries,
the clinician should advise which of the following?
• Hold boxes away from your body at arm's length
• Bend your knees and face the object straight on
• Keep your feet firmly together
• Bend and twist simultaneously as you twist - Answer Bend your knees and face the
object straight on
A 48 year old male presents with acute low back pain in the right that increases when
standing and bending. Upon physical exam, lower extremity muscle strength is 5/5 and
straight leg raise test is negative. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Muscle strain is usually located in the low back and is unilateral in location. The onset is
acute and pain increases with standing and bending and decreases with sitting. the
straight leg raises test and plain xray are both negative
A 49 year old female present with low back pain radiating into the right leg. An X-ray of
the lumbosacral spine is WNL. which of the folloing diagnoses do you explore further?
A plain xray will not show a herniated nucleus pulposus or a muscle straing. it will show
spondylolisthesis, scoliosis, osteoarthritis, and spinal stenosis. Note that xrays of the
spain are not indicated in low back pain unless the cause of the pains is thought to be
body in origin or traumatic in nature or theres is a need to rule out systemic disease.
A 55 year old female present with complaints of pain and parasthesisa in the left ulnar
aspext of the forearm, thumb, and middle finger following a C6 and C7 nerve root
dermatomal pattern. This is known as _________?
, 511 Week 5 Quiz
Cervical root compresssion of C6 and C7 causes cervical rediculopathy. Brachial plexus
neuritis present with dysfunction franging from momentary parasthesias to completely
flail extremities and is usuallly caused by injuries to the C5 and C6 nerve roots.
Peripheral polyneuropathy is associated with distal sensorimotor parasthesia and
diminished deep tendon reflexes. Thoracic outlet syndrome is caused by compression
of the brachial plexus and/or sublcavian vessles as they exit the space b/w the superior
shoulder girdle and the first rib. Symptoms are color changes in the hand and sensory
changes and weakness in the 4th and 5th fingers.
A 13 year old obeses (BMI aboe the 95th percentile) boy repoerts low-grade left knee
pain for the past 2 months. He denies antecedent trauma but admits frequent
"horseplay" with his friends. The pain has progressivley worsened and he is now unable
to bear weight at all on his left leg. His current complaints inclused left groin, thigh, and
medial knee pain and tenderness. His examination demonstrates negative drawer,
Lachman, and McMurray tests; left hip with decreased internal rotation and abduction;
and external hip rotation with knee flexion. Based on the above scenario, the clinican
should suspect which of the following?
- A left meniscal tear
- A slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE)
- A left anterior cruciated ligament (ACL) tear
- Osgood-Schlatter disease - Answer SCFE is a displacement of the femoral head
relative to the femoral neck that occurs through the physis (growth plate) of the femur.
The vast majority of clients with this condition are obese as the added wieght increases
shear stress across the physis. the mean age at diagnsosi is 12 for females and 13.5 for
males. Surgery is often required via in situ pin fixation (single screw) to stabilize the
growth plate
A 62 year old woman present to the clinic with low back pain. She states she has
developed episodes of fecal incontinence and numbness in her right leg over the last
week. Upon examination the clinician notes decreased perianal sensation to pinprick.
What should the clinician do next?
- Send the pt for electromyelography (EMG) testing
- Prescribe physical therapy for 6 weeks
- Order a MRI
- Refer the patient to the emergency room - Answer Refer the patient to the emergency
room
Cauda equina is characterized by loww of bowel/bladder control or saddle-pattern
anesthesia (perineum). If left untrested, compresssion can cause ischemia and
premamnent nerve damage leading to incontinence and paralysis. the pt should be
immediately referred to the ER.
A 28 year old male present to the clinic for follo-up from the emergency department,
where he was seen for right forearm pain 3 days ago. He works as a carpenter and is
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